MHB How to Calculate $\int_0 ^{\infty} \sin t^2$ Using Complex Analysis?

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Hello.

I'm having trouble calculating $\int_0 ^{\infty} \sin t^2$ using the fact that $\int _{\partial Tr} e^{-z^2} dz = 0$, where $Tr = conv (\{ 0, r, r + ir \})$ (a triangle).

I'm aware that I need to somehow transform $e^{-z^2}$ to get $\sin t^2, \ \cos t^2$ but I don't know how to do that.

It doesn't help if I write $e^z = e^x (\cos y + i \sin y)$, because then $e^{-z^2} = e^{y^2 - x^2} (\cos 2xy - i \sin 2xy)$, so there's no way I can get a square of $t$ that way.

How can one relate $e^z$ to $\sin t, \ \sin t^2$ differently from what is written above? I also don't see how I can use the triangle to compute this integral.

Could you help me with that?
 
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$$e^{-iz^2} = \cos(z^2)-i\sin(z^2)$$

On the interval $[0,r]$ we have

$$\int^r_0 e^{-iz^2} \,dz = \int^r_0 e^{-it^2}\,dt = \int^r_0 \cos(t^2)\,dt-i\int^r_0 \sin(t^2)\,dt$$
 
Thank you.

So I know that on the intervals $[0,r]$ the integrals $$\int^r_0 e^{-iz^2} \,dz = \int^r_0 e^{-it^2}\,dt = \int^r_0 \cos(t^2)\,dt-i\int^r_0 \sin(t^2)\,dt$$ are equal.

But on this interval $[r, r+ir]$ we have $z= (r + ir)y$ so $dz=(1+i)dy$ and $z^2 = (ry+iry)^2$, so here we get:

$$ \int ^{r+ir}_r e^{-(ry+iry)^2}idy$$. This doesn't seem to be easy to compute or transform into $\sin, \ \cos$...

we also have that $$\int^{r+ir}_r e^{-iz^2} \,dz = \int^{r+ir}_r \cos z^2 dz+ i \int^{r+ir}_r \sin z^2 dz$$
 
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Jakob said:
Thank you.

So I know that on the intervals $[0,r]$ the integrals $$\int^r_0 e^{-iz^2} \,dz = \int^r_0 e^{-it^2}\,dt = \int^r_0 \cos(t^2)\,dt-i\int^r_0 \sin(t^2)\,dt$$ are equal.

But on this interval $[r, r+ir]$ we have $z= r + iry$ so $dz=idy$ and $z^2 = (r+iy)^2$, so here we get:

$$ \int ^{r+ir}_r e^{-(r+iry)^2}idy$$. This doesn't seem to be easy to compute or transform into $\sin, \ \cos$...

we also have that $$\int^{r+ir}_r e^{-iz^2} \,dz = \int^{r+ir}_r \cos z^2 dz+ i \int^{r+ir}_r \sin z^2 dz$$

Sorry , I just realized that in your question we have to use the function $f(z) = e^{-z^2}$.

So have you done the parametrizations ? what do you get ?
 
If we go this way: $$0 \rightarrow r \rightarrow r+ir$$

we get:

for the segment $$[0, \ r] : \ z=x$$, so $dz = dx$ and $z^2 = x^2$

$$ [r, \ r+ir] : \ z= r + iry$$, so $dz=idy$ and $z^2 = (r+iry)^2$.

So the integral has this form: $$\int_0^r e^{-x^2} dx + i \int_r^{r+ir} e^{-(r+iry)^2} dy$$.

I don't know what to do next. Could you help?
 
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Jakob said:
If we go this way: $$0 \rightarrow r \rightarrow r+ir$$

we get:

for the segment $$[0, \ r] : \ z=x$$, so $dz = dx$ and $z^2 = x^2$

$$ [r, \ r+ir] : \ z= r + iry$$, so $dz=idy$ and $z^2 = (r+iry)^2$.

So the integral has this form: $$\int_0^r e^{-x^2} dx + i \int_r^{r+ir} e^{-(r+iry)^2} dy$$.

I don't know what to do next. Could you help?

You have done the parametrization the wrong way. It should be $z = (1+i)y$ . The integral then becomes

$$ (1+i) \int_0^{r} e^{-((1+i)y)^2} dy$$
 
I see.

You've determined the equation of the line on which lie $$0$$ and $$r+ir$$.However, I still do not see how to use it to derive $ \sin t^2$ from this integral(s).
 
Sine the function $f$ is analytic the integral along the closed path (triangle) must be zero.

$$\int^r_0 e^{-(1+i)^2y^2}\,dy = \int^r_0 e^{-2iy^2}\,dy$$

which is more or less the integral we want to evaluate. It remains to find the integral along the vertical line of the triangle. You need to re-evaluate it because you have done it wrong.
 
I've noticed my mistake and I've just edited my post. Could you tell me if it is all right now?

On this interval $[r, r+ir]$ we have $z= (r + ir)y$ so $dz=(1+i)dy$ and $z^2 = (ry+iry)^2$, so here we get:

$$ \int ^{r+ir}_r e^{-(ry+iry)^2}idy = \int ^{r+ir}_r e^{-2r^2y^2} i dy$$Could we use this $$e^{-iz^2} = \cos(z^2)-i\sin(z^2)$$ now?
 
  • #10
Jakob said:
I've noticed my mistake and I've just edited my post. Could you tell me if it is all right now?

On this interval $[r, r+ir]$ we have $z= (r + ir)y$ so $dz=(1+i)dy$ and $z^2 = (ry+iry)^2$, so here we get

To make sure that you are doing it the right way substitute the limits of integration. You used the lower limit as $r$ but when you substitue in $z=(r+ir)y$ you get $z=(r+ir)r$ which is not the starting point of the vertical line. The same goes for the upper limit.
 
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  • #11
I'm sorry for the confusion. Let me try one more time.

The equation of the line passing through $r$ and $r+ir$ is $x=r$, so $z=r+iy$, (because $ z=x+iy$), so $dz=idy$ and $ z^2 = (r+iy)^2=r^2-y^2+2iry$, so the integral over the vertical segment is $$\int_0^r (e^{y^2-r^2-2iry})dy$$.

Is it correct this time?
 
  • #12
Jakob said:
I'm sorry for the confusion. Let me try one more time.

The equation of the line passing through $r$ and $r+ir$ is $x=r$, so $z=r+iy$, (because $ z=x+iy$), so $dz=idy$ and $ z^2 = (r+iy)^2=r^2-y^2+2iry$, so the integral over the vertical segment is $$\int_0^r (e^{y^2-r^2-2iry})dy$$.

Is it correct this time?

Yes , you just forgot the i from differentiation. Now , you need to prove that this integral vanishes as $r \to \infty$.
 
  • #13
$$\int_0^r e^{y^2-r^2-2iry} dy = e^{-r^2} \int_0^r e^{y^2-2iry} dy $$

I thought I could estimate it somehow or use the error function (this integral is equal to $$\frac{\pi}{2}(erf(x)+erf(1+i)r)$$), but I haven't come up with anything so far.
 
  • #14
Jakob said:
$$\int_0^r e^{y^2-r^2-2iry} dy = e^{-r^2} \int_0^r e^{y^2-2iry} dy $$

I thought I could estimate it somehow or use the error function (this integral is equal to $$\frac{\pi}{2}(erf(x)+erf(1+i)r)$$), but I haven't come up with anything so far.

Hint 1: get rid of the exponential containing $i$.
Hint 2: use L'Hospital rule.
 
  • #15
Would this question be easier to do over a different contour? Like a circle for example?
 
  • #16
Prove It said:
Would this question be easier to do over a different contour? Like a circle for example?

Do you mean a semi-circle ?

I know that it can also be found using a sector (Fresnel integral) but the idea is the same.
 
  • #17
Should I use de l'Hospital's rule to the function I'm integrating? If so, I get $$\frac{-2re^{y^2-r^2}}{-2( \sin 2yr - i \cos 2yr)}$$. Did I misunderstand you?
What about $\sin t^2$?
 
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  • #18
First you need to use the property $|e^{ix}|\leq 1$ , then apply the differentiation.
 
  • #19
I need to prove that this integral $$\int_{0}^{r} \frac{e^{y^2 - r^2}}{e^{2ir}}\,d y$$ vanishes as $r$ approaches infinity.

$$| e^{y^2 - r^2}e^{-2ir} | \le | e^{y^2-r^2} | $$, because $$|e^{-2ir}| \le 1$$.

But now I don't see how I can apply the de l"Hospital rule, because there is no denominator.
 
  • #20
Jakob said:
I need to prove that this integral $$\int_{0}^{r} \frac{e^{y^2 - r^2}}{e^{2ir}}\,d y$$ vanishes as $r$ approaches infinity.

$$| e^{y^2 - r^2}e^{-2ir} | \le | e^{y^2-r^2} | $$, because $$|e^{-2ir}| \le 1$$.

But now I don't see how I can apply the de l"Hospital rule, because there is no denominator.

Good. Now you get

$$| \int^r_0 e^{y^2 - r^2}e^{-2ir} \, dy | \le \frac{\int^r_0 e^{y^2}\,dy}{e^{r^2}}$$

$$\lim_{r \to \infty} \frac{\int^r_0 e^{y^2}\,dy}{e^{r^2}} = \lim_{r \to \infty}\frac{e^{r^2}}{2r e^{r^2}} \to 0$$
 
  • #21
Ok, I see that now.

Now there remain only two integrals:

$$\int_0^{\infty} e^{-x^2} dx = (1+i) \int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-2iy^2} \,d y = (1+i) \int_{0}^{\infty} (\cos 2y^2 - i \sin 2y^2) \,d y$$.

$$= \int_{0}^{\infty} \cos 2x^2 \,d x - i \int_{0}^{\infty} \sin 2x^2 \,d x +i \int_{0}^{\infty} \cos 2x^2 \,d x + \int_{0}^{\infty} \sin 2x^2 \,d x$$

So $$\int_{0}^{\infty} \cos 2x^2 \,d x - \int_{0}^{\infty} \sin 2x^2 \,d x =0$$

and $$\int_{0}^{\infty} \cos 2x^2 \,d x + \int_{0}^{\infty} \sin 2x^2 \,d x = \int_0^{\infty} e^{-x^2} dx $$.

Is that correct?

If it is, then $$\int_{0}^{\infty} \cos 2x^2 \,d x = \int_{0}^{\infty} \sin 2x^2 \,d x = \frac{1}{2} \int_0^{\infty} e^{-x^2} dx $$

Ok, I checked my result on wolfram :)

Thank you very, very much for all your help!
 
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  • #22
Jakob said:
Ok, I checked my result on wolfram :)

Thank you very, very much for all your help!

very nice. I hope every think is clear , now.
 

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