How to care about only one particle in a two-particle system

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SUMMARY

This discussion focuses on calculating the probability of locating one particle in a two-particle system within a one-dimensional infinite potential well. The symmetric and antisymmetric wave functions are defined as ψ_{symmetric} = (2/L) [sin(πx₁/L)sin(2πx₂/L) + sin(2πx₁/L)sin(πx₂/L)] and ψ_{antisymmetric} = (2/L) [sin(πx₁/L)sin(2πx₂/L) - sin(2πx₁/L)sin(πx₂/L)]. The key insight is that integration over the entire range for one particle and from one edge of the well to a position x for the other is unnecessary due to the orthonormality of single particle states. This allows for straightforward normalization of the wave functions.

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Homework Statement
Consider the symmetry and antisymmetric two-particle wave functions for a one-dimensional box with impenetrable walls at x = +- L/2. One particle occupies the ground state, and the other occupies the first excited state.

What is the probability to find a particle at position x for either case if we do not care about the position of the second particle.
Relevant Equations
See below
So for the 1D infinite well with the states above, I have

## \psi_{symmetric} = \frac{2}{L} [sin[\frac{\pi x_1}{L}]sin[\frac{2\pi x_2}{L}] + sin[\frac{2\pi x_1}{L}]sin[\frac{\pi x_2}{L}]] ##
## \psi_{antisymmetric} = \frac{2}{L} [sin[\frac{\pi x_1}{L}]sin[\frac{2\pi x_2}{L}] - sin[\frac{2\pi x_1}{L}]sin[\frac{\pi x_2}{L}]]##

The question statement says to find the probability of finding a particle at a position ##x## for both cases if we "do not care about the position of the second particle". How do I do that? I thinking I might be able to simply integrate over the whole range for one particle, and then integrate from one edge of the well to the position x for the other? But I've never done anything like this and do not know.
 
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I believe you are on the right path. You don't actually need to do the integrals because you know the single particle states are orthonormal (the integrals either 0 or 1). So write it out carefully and see if it makes sense. This is a useful exercise.
 
Note that in this problem the well extends from x = -L/2 to x = L/2. In this case, the ground state is not of the form sin(πx/L).
 
I *just* saw that! Thank you. I have now have legitimate answers that preserve normalization when I integrate over everything. Thank you!
 

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