How to Find Probabilities in Quantum Mechanics?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around finding probabilities in quantum mechanics, specifically related to a wave function with angular momentum quantum number l = 1. The original poster is attempting to determine the probabilities of measuring specific eigenvalues of the operator L_z from a given wave function.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster describes their approach of applying the L_z operator to the wave function and seeks clarification on how to extract probabilities from the resulting state. Some participants provide insights into the general formula for calculating probabilities in quantum mechanics and question how to incorporate specific eigenvalue conditions.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the problem, with some offering guidance on the probability calculation method. There is an exploration of how to relate the wave function to the eigenstates of the L_z operator, but no consensus has been reached on the specific steps to take.

Contextual Notes

The discussion includes assumptions about the normalization of the wave function and the basis of angular momentum eigenstates. There is also a light-hearted acknowledgment of the complexity of quantum mechanics from one participant.

Biest
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Hi,

I have a quick homework problem because I am confused. So a wave function with l = 1 in the state:

|\psi&gt; = \frac{1}{\sqrt{14}} \[ \left( \begin{array}{ccc}<br /> 1 \\<br /> 2 \\<br /> 3i \end{array} \right)\]

and i have to find the probability to be in state \hbar, -\hbar, 0 in L_z, so i applied L_z so |\psi&gt; and got

L_z|\psi&gt; = \frac{\hbar}{\sqrt{14}} \[ \left( \begin{array}{ccc}<br /> 1 \\<br /> 0 \\<br /> -3i \end{array} \right)\]

How do i find the probabilities from that?Thanks,

Biest
 
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Always, the probability of finding a state |\psi\rangle in a state |\phi\rangle is \left| \left&lt;\phi \middle| \psi \right&gt;\right|^2.
 
But how do i take the \hbar, -\hbar 0 condition into account?
 
assuming your |\psi\rangle is in the basis of normalised angular momentum eigenstates, then your probabilities just correspond to \frac{1}{14} for \hbar, \frac{2}{7} for 0 and \frac{9}{14} for -\hbar.

so what happens is that for |\phi\rangle to return you an eigenvalue of say \hbar, we need

|\phi\rangle = \[ \left( \begin{array}{ccc} 1 \\ 0 \\ 0 \end{array} \right) \]

and taking \left| \left&lt;\phi \middle| \psi \right&gt;\right|^2, we get \frac{1}{14}.

hope it helps. QM was never my strong point. haha
 

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