A How to get Peierls substitution in edge state?

haw
In paper PRL 101, 246807 (2008), authors use "Peierls substitution", that is ky -> -i y. As we know, ky is eigenvalue of translation operator in period potential, while -i y is momentum operator, it seems they are huge different. So I wonder how to get ""Peierls substitution" in strict math way?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
haw said:
In paper PRL 101, 246807 (2008), authors use "Peierls substitution", that is ky -> -i y. As we know, ky is eigenvalue of translation operator in period potential, while -i y is momentum operator, it seems they are huge different. So I wonder how to get ""Peierls substitution" in strict math way?

No, k_y is the eigenvalue of momentum p_y = -i \partial_y.

The translation operator in the y direction is given by T_y(a) = e^{-i p_y a}.
 
Peierls substitution is a way to couple a tight binding Hamiltonian to a external magnetic field within the lattice approximation. I see what you are referring to in the paper; they say that they use that substitution to say k_y \rightarrow \partial_y. I think they might be misusing the term; When they move from PBC's to finite BC's along the y direction, k_y is no longer a good quantum number. And in moving from a lattice model with momentum k_y to a continuum model with crystal momentum \hbar k they make the substitution k_y \rightarrow \hbar k_y or \partial_y. I'm not sure why they call it a Peierls substitution, it looks more like a substitution like lattice to continuum model. Here is a nice forum post about the math behind the Peierls substitution: https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/178003/tight-binding-model-in-a-magnetic-field

I've actually solved this model before, and the way to do it is to take the momentum space Hamiltonian and do a partial Fourier transform along the y direction, so that in the final product you have a Hamiltonian that is PBC in the x direction but lattice model in the y direction.
 
  • Like
Likes MisterX
Thanks for your help! Actually helpful.
 
Hi. I have got question as in title. How can idea of instantaneous dipole moment for atoms like, for example hydrogen be consistent with idea of orbitals? At my level of knowledge London dispersion forces are derived taking into account Bohr model of atom. But we know today that this model is not correct. If it would be correct I understand that at each time electron is at some point at radius at some angle and there is dipole moment at this time from nucleus to electron at orbit. But how...
Back
Top