How to prove definition of exponential function as limit of powers converges

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the convergence of the limit defining the exponential function, specifically the limit of the sequence \((1 + x/n)^n\) as \(n\) approaches infinity, without relying on the exponential function's definition. Participants explore various approaches and related questions regarding the convergence of this limit and its implications.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant expresses difficulty in proving the convergence of \(\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} (1 + x/n)^n\) for all \(x \in \mathbb{R}\) without using the definition of the exponential function.
  • Another participant suggests a substitution \(u = n/x\) to relate the case for \(x=1\) to other values of \(x\), but acknowledges a lack of knowledge in real analysis.
  • A third participant raises concerns about circular reasoning in using properties of the exponential function to prove the limit, emphasizing the need for a definition of real powers without invoking the exponential function.
  • One participant proposes using the binomial theorem to expand the limit into a series and argues that this series is bounded by a convergent series, \(\sum \frac{x^n}{n!}\), which converges for all \(x\) by the ratio test.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the validity of various approaches to proving the limit's convergence. There is no consensus on a single method or resolution to the problem, and the discussion remains unresolved.

Contextual Notes

Some participants highlight limitations in their approaches, such as reliance on the properties of the exponential function or the need for definitions of powers and logarithms. There are also unresolved questions regarding the convergence of the power series and its implications for the limit.

brian44
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I've tried and searched for a long time, and I haven't been able to prove or find a proof that the following sequence converges (without using another definition of the exponential function):

\forall x \in \mathbb{R}. Prove that:

\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} (1+ x/n)^n exists.

I can prove that it is monotonic and using binomial theorem I can show that it is bounded for x=1. However if I try to use the same approach for general x, I get the power series for e^x and can only say it is bounded if I can prove the power series converges, which I don't know how to do. But even if I did is there any way to prove this limit exists without proving the power series converges (the other definition of e^x)?


Another related question I can't figure out is, how can I prove that


\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} (1+ x/n + o(x/n))^n = \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}(1 + x/n)^n

where o(x/n) is any function that goes to 0 more quickly as (x/n) \rightarrow 0 than (x/n)?
 
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I admit I don't know much real analysis. However if we have the proof for x =1 can't we let u= n/x. Then u goes to inf. as n does, x/n = 1/u and n = u*x. If we call the result for x=1 e, we get (lim u->inf (1 + 1/u))^x = e^x.
 
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The problem with such an approach is that it uses the exponential function and its properties in the definition of the exponential function itself - so I would consider it circular reasoning.

Before defining e^x we have definitions for integer powers as products, but without defining the exponential function and logarithms, we can't say what something^x, where x is a real number, means, specifically I believe we define these general powers as a\in \mathbb{R^+} x\in\mathbb{R}, a^x := e^{x \log(a)}
 
Without ever knowing anything about the exponential function you can expand the limmand into a series using the binomial theorem and show that series is bounded by \sum \frac{x^n}{n!} which converges for all x by the ratio test.
 

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