nonequilibrium
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Hello,
Can anybody tell me why \nabla_{\textbf q} \langle \textbf q, P \textbf q \rangle = P \textbf q?
Explanation of notations:
q is an n-dimensional vector: \textbf q = (q_1, q_2, \cdots, q_n)^T
P is an nxn-dimensional, real, Hermitian matrix
\nabla_{\textbf q} := \left(\frac{\partial}{\partial q_1}, \cdots, \frac{\partial}{\partial q_n} \right)^T
Background story: I know the (specific) Lagrangian is \mathcal L = \frac{m}{2} \langle \dot{\textbf q},\dot{\textbf q} \rangle - \frac{k}{2} \langle \textbf q, P \textbf q \rangle and the book then tells me that \ddot{ \textbf q } = - \frac{k}{2m} P \textbf q and I presume that they derived this from the Lagrangian equations \frac{\mathrm d}{\mathrm dt} \left( \nabla_{\dot{\textbf q}} \mathcal L \right) = \nabla_{\textbf q} \mathcal L but to do that I need to have the above equality, right?
Can anybody tell me why \nabla_{\textbf q} \langle \textbf q, P \textbf q \rangle = P \textbf q?
Explanation of notations:
q is an n-dimensional vector: \textbf q = (q_1, q_2, \cdots, q_n)^T
P is an nxn-dimensional, real, Hermitian matrix
\nabla_{\textbf q} := \left(\frac{\partial}{\partial q_1}, \cdots, \frac{\partial}{\partial q_n} \right)^T
Background story: I know the (specific) Lagrangian is \mathcal L = \frac{m}{2} \langle \dot{\textbf q},\dot{\textbf q} \rangle - \frac{k}{2} \langle \textbf q, P \textbf q \rangle and the book then tells me that \ddot{ \textbf q } = - \frac{k}{2m} P \textbf q and I presume that they derived this from the Lagrangian equations \frac{\mathrm d}{\mathrm dt} \left( \nabla_{\dot{\textbf q}} \mathcal L \right) = \nabla_{\textbf q} \mathcal L but to do that I need to have the above equality, right?