mmzaj
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I am looking for help with doing the following integral :
\frac{1}{2\pi i}\int_{1}^{\infty}\ln\left(\frac{1-e^{-2\pi i x}}{1-e^{2\pi i x}} \right )\frac{dx}{x\left(\ln x+z\right)}\;\;\;\;z\in \mathbb{C}
i tried to transform it into a complex integral along a 'keyhole' contour, with a branch cut along the +ive real line \left[1,\infty\right). but then \;\ln x\; would be transformed into \;\ln x+2\pi i\; when doing the integral along \left(\infty,1\right]\; which doesn't add up nicely to the portion along \left[1,\infty\right). any insights are appreciated.
\frac{1}{2\pi i}\int_{1}^{\infty}\ln\left(\frac{1-e^{-2\pi i x}}{1-e^{2\pi i x}} \right )\frac{dx}{x\left(\ln x+z\right)}\;\;\;\;z\in \mathbb{C}
i tried to transform it into a complex integral along a 'keyhole' contour, with a branch cut along the +ive real line \left[1,\infty\right). but then \;\ln x\; would be transformed into \;\ln x+2\pi i\; when doing the integral along \left(\infty,1\right]\; which doesn't add up nicely to the portion along \left[1,\infty\right). any insights are appreciated.