How Can You Prove This Hyperbolic Function Identity?

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The discussion centers on proving the hyperbolic function identity tan^{-1}x = (1/2)ln((1+x)/(1-x)). Participants explore the relationship between the tangent inverse function and hyperbolic functions, emphasizing the need to demonstrate that tan((1/2)ln((1+x)/(1-x))) equals x. A participant identifies an error in their quadratic equation setup and corrects it to e^(2y)(1-x) = 1+x. The conversation highlights the use of the double angle formula for tangent and the identity for tan((1/2)y) to simplify the proof. The proof process involves substituting hyperbolic expressions and applying trigonometric identities to reach the desired conclusion.
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I need help proving this hyperbolic function

Prove that

\tan^{-1}\hbar {x}=\frac{1}{2}\ln\frac{1+x}{1-x}

my work
x=e^y-e^-y/e^y+e^-y
(e^y+e^-y)x=e^y-e^-y

0=e^y-e^-y-xe^y+xe^-y

e^y(e^y-e^-y-xe^y+xe^-y)

e^2y-x(e^2y)-1+x=0

I know i have to use the quadratic equation here
 
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One problem you have is that you have "lost" a sign:

instead of e^2y-x(e^2y)-1+x=0, the correct equation is
e^(2y)- x(e^(2y))-1-x= 0 or, more simply, e^(2y)(1-x)= 1+x
so e^(2y)= (1+x)/(1-x).
 
, but i am not sure how to proceed with the proof.

To prove this hyperbolic function, we can use the definition of the tangent inverse function, which states that \tan^{-1}x=y if and only if \tan y=x. Therefore, we need to show that \tan \left(\frac{1}{2}\ln\frac{1+x}{1-x}\right)=x.

Using the double angle formula for tangent, we have:

\tan \left(\frac{1}{2}\ln\frac{1+x}{1-x}\right)=\frac{2\tan\left(\frac{1}{2}\ln\frac{1+x}{1-x}\right)}{1-\tan^2\left(\frac{1}{2}\ln\frac{1+x}{1-x}\right)}

Now, let's substitute the value of x=e^y-e^-y/e^y+e^-y that we have obtained from the given equation:

\tan \left(\frac{1}{2}\ln\frac{1+x}{1-x}\right)=\frac{2\tan\left(\frac{1}{2}\ln\frac{1+e^y-e^-y/e^y+e^-y}{1-e^y+e^-y/e^y+e^-y}\right)}{1-\tan^2\left(\frac{1}{2}\ln\frac{1+e^y-e^-y/e^y+e^-y}{1-e^y+e^-y/e^y+e^-y}\right)}

Now, using the identity \tan\left(\frac{1}{2}y\right)=\frac{\sin y}{1+\cos y}, we can simplify the expression further:

\tan \left(\frac{1}{2}\ln\frac{1+x}{1-x}\right)=\frac{2\left(\frac{\sin\left(\frac{1}{2}\ln\frac{1+e^y-e^-y/e^y+e^-y}{1-e^y+e^-y/e^y+e^-y}\right)}{1+\cos\left(\frac{1}{2}\ln\frac{1+e^y-e^-y/e^y+e^-y}{1-e^y+e^-y/e^y+e^-y}\
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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