- #1
Voithi
- 3
- 0
I was just thinking about inertia and i understand that smaller masses accelerate faster under the same force. Then I thought about an objects acceleration under the frictional force.
Now say there were two objects of the same material, same volume but different masses. They are in contact with the same surface (so the coefficients of friction are equal). Now theoretically these objects should have the same acceleration if friction is the only force present.
Fg = Fn = mg
Ff = (mu)Fn = (mu)mg
Fnet = (mu)mg
Fnet = ma
a= F/m
a= (mu)mg/m ------> mass cancel
a = (mu)g
So by this equation we can say that since mass cancel, it is irrelevant in determining the acceleration of any two objects. So this makes sense to me calculation wise but I have trouble grasping that in real life an object of say 5 kg and 50 kg even though they are of the same material will slow down at the same rate. Does this make any sense?
Now say there were two objects of the same material, same volume but different masses. They are in contact with the same surface (so the coefficients of friction are equal). Now theoretically these objects should have the same acceleration if friction is the only force present.
Fg = Fn = mg
Ff = (mu)Fn = (mu)mg
Fnet = (mu)mg
Fnet = ma
a= F/m
a= (mu)mg/m ------> mass cancel
a = (mu)g
So by this equation we can say that since mass cancel, it is irrelevant in determining the acceleration of any two objects. So this makes sense to me calculation wise but I have trouble grasping that in real life an object of say 5 kg and 50 kg even though they are of the same material will slow down at the same rate. Does this make any sense?