How do you show that $$\frac{1}{z}\prod_{n=1}^\infty \frac{n}{z+n}(\frac{n+1}{n})^z$$ is meromorphic? Any hints would be helpful, I'm having trouble bounding the functions and their logarithms. This is exercise XIII.3 problem 15 in Gamelin's Complex Analysis.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

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# Infinite product

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