Infinite sets onto and one-to-one

In summary: Rightarrow f(n)\neq f(m) \quad \text{ or } \quad f(m) = f(n) \Rightarrow m = n.In summary, there is no solution to the problem of finding a function that is one-to-one and onto for all integers.
  • #1
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Homework Statement


N is the set of natural numbers, Z is the set of all integers
Construct a function a : N -> Z that is both one to one and onto.
Construct a function b : Z -> N that is one to one but not onto.

The Attempt at a Solution


The only attempts have been very wrong - not even sure where to start since in both cases it doesn't seem that a solution is possible.
 
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  • #2
If your friend from Mars who doesn't know our strange number system, were to ask you to list all integers, so that she can see what kind of numbers we use on Earth.

Maybe you would start with zero because it lies somewhere in the middle, then you might go on to tell her about 1 and -1 because they are pretty nearby and often used...how could you continue?

When you've told her about ALL integers you will have found a function N-->Z. Do you see why this is one-to-one and onto?
 
  • #3
I'm sorry I am having problems understanding how we have found a function once we have told her about all integers. Maybe I've been looking at the problem wrong for so long I'm not picking up the obvious...
 
  • #4
We're looking for a function f: N-->Z. this means for each natural number n, f(n) must give an integer. f being one-to-one means, two different natural numbers give you different integers

[tex]
m\neq n \Rightarrow f(n)\neq f(m)
[/tex]

f being "onto" means for each integer z you have some natural number n such that f(n)=z.

So let's define the function by

f(n) = the n.th integer you told you friend about.

:smile:

What would be f(1), f(2), f(3), f(4), f(5) ...?
 
  • #5
How can the function be onto? There are not enough natural numbers for there to be a unique solution for all f(n) = z
 
  • #6
well this is a very good point. there are infinitely many natural numbers and there are also infinetly many integers. I agree that intuitively it seems that there should be twice as many integers as natural numbers. This is not the case. The very fact there indeed IS a function N-->Z which is "onto" shows that you can count the integers, hence the name countable set.

Are you familar with the term "countable"?

Do you agree that the function f as I defined it, is onto? What are the first few values of this function f?
 
  • #7
As you have defined it f(1) = 0, f(2) = 1, f(3) = -1, f(4) = 2, f(5) = -2, etc etc.
Is this correct?

Edit: I know I must seem dense, thank you for your help
 
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  • #8
This is indeed one - and most likely the most common - way to define a function f:N-->Z

Now it would be good to write down a general formula for this function because "etc" doesn't look good:smile:.
And you should convnce yourself that it is onto.
That means somebody picks an integer, say 3456, will there be a natural number n such that f(n)=3456?
 
  • #9
Now things make sense and I do see why this function is onto.

So then f(n) = ceiling(-n/2) when n is odd, and f(n) = (n/2) when n is even.
 
  • #10
Any help on "Construct a function b : Z -> N that is one to one but not onto."?
 
  • #11
Take any subclass of N, like the even natural numbers for instance. Can you split this into two subclasses? Say, the ones that are divisible by 4, and the ones that aren't...
 
  • #12
I'm waaay too tired tonight. Can you be a little more specific?
 
  • #13
The most natural one-to-one function that maps Z into N is the one that sends the positive integers to the positive even natural numbers, the negative integers to the odd natural numbers, and 0 to 0. The problem is, this map is also onto. So my post was hinting at the idea of mapping Z to a suitable proper subset of N, one in which we can do something like the even-odd map again.
 
  • #14
Sorry it took a while to get back. Thanks a lot for your help, I solved the problems.
 
  • #15
I ended up getting this problem wrong and I was hoping you could give me another hint on: mapping Z to a suitable proper subset of N, one in which we can do something like the even-odd map again?

My teacher won't help me find the answer and I will probably need to understand this for the final.
 
  • #16
What was your answer? Make sure that in addition to being not onto, your function is one-to-one. To show that a function f is one-to-one, you can show that either

[tex]m\neq n \Rightarrow f(n)\neq f(m) \quad \text{ or } \quad f(m) = f(n) \Rightarrow m = n[/tex]

Pere mentioned the first option above.
 
  • #17
My post was in response to morphism's post.
==================
The most natural one-to-one function that maps Z into N is the one that sends the positive integers to the positive even natural numbers, the negative integers to the odd natural numbers, and 0 to 0. The problem is, this map is also onto. So my post was hinting at the idea of mapping Z to a suitable proper subset of N, one in which we can do something like the even-odd map again.
==================

I'm not sure how to map Z to a proper subset of N that does something like the even-odd map again.
 

What are infinite sets?

Infinite sets are sets that contain an unlimited number of elements. This means that no matter how many elements you remove or add, the set will always have an infinite number of elements.

What does it mean for a set to be onto?

A set is onto when every element in the codomain (the set of all possible output values) has at least one corresponding element in the domain (the set of all possible input values). In other words, every element in the codomain is mapped to by at least one element in the domain.

What does it mean for a set to be one-to-one?

A set is one-to-one when each element in the domain is mapped to a unique element in the codomain. In other words, no two elements in the domain are mapped to the same element in the codomain.

How do you determine if a set is onto?

To determine if a set is onto, you need to check if every element in the codomain is mapped to by at least one element in the domain. If there is even one element in the codomain that is not mapped to, then the set is not onto.

How do you determine if a set is one-to-one?

To determine if a set is one-to-one, you need to check if each element in the domain is mapped to a unique element in the codomain. If there are any elements in the domain that are mapped to the same element in the codomain, then the set is not one-to-one.

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