# Infinitesimal Canonical Transformation

1. Mar 5, 2013

### Leb

Hi all!

Another questions which is due to the gaps in my calculus knowledge.

In these notes: http://people.hofstra.edu/Gregory_C_Levine/qft.pdf in the line above eq. (1) where it says that notation $P$ is now unecessary, is it because $\partial{ (p+\delta p)}$ is much smaller than $p+\delta p$ and most of the change will only happen in $p$ and hence the use of only $\partial {p}$ ?

I wish someone could explain the usage of these $\delta x$ and $\partial {x}$ when all of this "just the notation" argument is used... But I suppose this is too broad.