daudaudaudau said:
Obviously such a problem has infinitely many solutions.
Could you state one for general f and g?What I would do first is assume we can separate K(x,t)=F(x)G(t)
And also assume that f and F are differentiable.
Then you find that \frac{f(x)}{F(x)} = \int^R_x G(t)g(t)dt
let \hat{f} = \frac{f(x)}{F(x)}
and taking the derivative with the FTC you get that:
\hat{f}' = -G(x)g(x)
After some calculation you can devise the non-linear ODE:
F'(x) - \frac{F^2(x)G(x)g(x)}{f(x)} - \frac{f'(x)F(x)}{f(x)} = 0
So with specific choices for G i.e. G=\frac{1}{F} orG=\frac{1}{F^2} you can get certain solutions.
for example the choice G=\frac{1}{F} leads to the solution:
K(x,t) = e^{h(x)-h(t)}**
where h(y)=\int^y_a \frac{g(s)+f'(s)}{f(s)}ds for any a in the shared domain of f,g,and\ f'**this is actually: K(x,t)=e^{\int^x_t\frac{g(s)+f'(s)}{f(s)}ds
which is just one solution to this problem.
edit: the solution I gave for K can be multiplied by any constant, presumably determined by R