Integral of 1/(1-xy): Pi2/6 from 0 to 1

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves evaluating the double integral of the function 1/(1-xy) over the unit square, with the goal of showing that it equals π²/6. The subject area pertains to calculus and integral evaluation.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss various methods of integration, including substitution and power series expansion. Some express confusion over the steps taken, particularly regarding the transformation of the integral into a series. Others question the validity of initial integration attempts and suggest alternative approaches.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants exploring different interpretations and methods. Some have provided hints and suggestions, such as using power series or specific substitutions, but no consensus has been reached on a definitive approach.

Contextual Notes

There is mention of the expectation that participants should be familiar with the convergence of the series to π²/6, as well as the use of specific substitutions to simplify the problem. The original poster has also indicated a need to show the integral's evaluation through a double substitution method.

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Homework Statement



show what integral of 1/(1-xy)dxdy = pi2/6

dx 0 to 1
dy 0 to 1

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution

 
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Doesn't look like a hard integral. What have you tried?
 
[tex]\int[/tex]1/(1-xy)dx = ln(1-xy) = ln(1-y) - ln1

[tex]\int[/tex]ln(1-y) - ln1 dy = (1-y)ln(1-y) - (1- y) - yln1

= -ln1 - (ln1 - 1) = = -2ln1 + 1 huh
 
joemama69 said:
[tex]\int[/tex]1/(1-xy)dx = ln(1-xy) = ln(1-y) - ln1

[tex]\int[/tex]ln(1-y) - ln1 dy = (1-y)ln(1-y) - (1- y) - yln1

= -ln1 - (ln1 - 1) = = -2ln1 + 1 huh

remember

[tex]\int[/tex]f '(x)/f(x) dx = ln[f(x)] for your 1st integral, also you're taking y constant, so treat it like one
 
1/(1-xy) = sum from n= 0 to infinity of x^n y^n

The integral is thus the sum from n = 0 to infinity of 1/(n+1)^2 which is pi^2/6
 
The first integration isn't correct. You can see that immediately by differentiating the primitive. Use a substitution if you don't see it right away, [itex]u=1-xy,du=-ydx[/itex]. The hard part comes after this however. Hint: Use the power series of the logarithm.

Edit: Use Count's method it's quicker and easier.
 
ok so your saying

1(1-xy) = [tex]\sum[/tex]xnyn from n = 0 to infinity

[tex]\int\int[/tex]1/(1-xy) = [tex]\sum[/tex]1/(n+1)2 = pi2/6

how does 1/(1-xy) go to the sum of xnyn

and how does 1/(1-xy) got to the sum of (n+1)2 then go to pi2/2
 
Ok let's say z=xy, then [tex]\frac{1}{1-xy}= \frac{1}{1-z}=\sum_{n=0}^\infty z^n=\sum_{n=0}^\infty (xy)^n=\sum_{n=0}^\infty x^n y^n[/tex]. Then you take the integral over the sum.

[tex]\int_0^1 \int_0^1 \sum_{n=0}^\infty x^n y^n dxdy=\sum_{n=0}^\infty \left(\int_0^1 \int_0^1 x^n y^n dxdy\right)[/tex]. Can you see how to continue from here?

Edit: I think you're expected to know that the series converges to pi^2/6 by heart. However http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Basel_problem shows you how to get to that value in case you're interested.
 
Last edited:
oops i think i forgot something

the entire problem is

show that

[tex]\int\int[/tex]1/(1-xy)dxdy = pi2/6

by doing the double substitution

x = (u - v)/[tex]\sqrt{2}[/tex] and y = (u + v)/[tex]\sqrt{2}[/tex]

This amounts to rotating the axes cuonterclockwise through the angle pi/4
 

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