Integral on domain equals minus integral on the reverse domain?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the relationship between integrals over different limits, specifically why the integral from a to b of a function f(x) equals the negative of the integral from b to a of the same function. The subject area is calculus, focusing on integral definitions and properties.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the conceptual understanding of the relationship between the two integrals, questioning the geometric interpretation and derivation of the property. Some express confusion about the foundational definitions and seek clarification on Riemann sums.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants sharing their thoughts on the geometric representation of the integrals and referencing Apostol's definitions. Some have provided insights into the relationship between the integrals, while others continue to seek clarification on the concepts involved.

Contextual Notes

There is mention of assumptions regarding the order of limits (a < b or a > b) and the definitions provided in Apostol's calculus text. Participants are also considering the implications of these definitions on their understanding of integrals.

isalloum4
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Homework Statement



Why integral from a to b of f(x) equals "minus (-)" integral from b to a of f(x)? when a<b or a>b

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The Attempt at a Solution

 
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Is this a homework question or your own question?
 
I am reading Apostol calculus and I couldn't figure out how the above relation got derived!
 
isalloum4 said:
I am reading Apostol calculus and I couldn't figure out how the above relation got derived!

You want this I believe :

##\int_{a}^{b} f(x) dx = - \int_{b}^{a} f(x) dx##

Is it that you're not understanding how to prove it or is it conceptually confusing?
 
Exactly that I meant! It is conceptually confusing ( even though I thought I am good at that) and I don't know where it came from!
Many thanks for help
 
isalloum4 said:
Exactly that I meant! It is conceptually confusing ( even though I thought I am good at that) and I don't know where it came from!
Many thanks for help

Think about this integral :

##\int_{a}^{b} f(x) dx## where you assume ##a≤b##.

In words, it represents the area under the curve when we integrate f(x) from a to b. Right?

Now think about this one :

##- \int_{b}^{a} f(x) dx## now you assume ##a≥b##.

This one will represent the area under the curve when we integrate f(x) from b to a. The negative sign 'flips' the answer around so you will get the same answer as if you integrated from a to b.

I hope that clears that up a bit.

Do you know about Riemann sums at all? The mesh of a partition? Any definitions you have would be great.
 
Thanks for your time! But I still don't understand the geometric representation for this. And, both integrals are related to each other only when a<b for both the positive and the negative.
 
If I remember correctly, Apostol defines the integral \int_a^b f(x)dx through "Riemann sums" only for a< b, the defines \int_b^a f(x)dx= -\int_a^b f(x)dx.
 
Here is a simple way to look at this. When \frac{d}{dx}F(x)=f(x), \int_{a}^{b}f(x)dx=F(b)-F(a). Also, \int_{b}^{a}f(x)dx=F(a)-F(b)=-(F(b)-F(a)). Therefore, \int_{a}^{b}f(x)dx=-\int_{b}^{a}f(x)dx.
 

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