Integrate (X/X+d)dX: Solve w/Substitution

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I cannot figure out how to integrate (X/X+d)dX. I know that I should probably use the method of partial fractions but the num and den degrees are the same and the den cannot be broken down. I guess I could use some sort of substitution but which? please help :confused:
 
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try using long division to divide x by (x+d) & see what you get.
 
I'd do integration by parts.

You can write this as x * \frac{1}{x+d} dx

The second part should look familiar. (arctan)

The \int{u*dv} = uv - \int{v*du}

Let u = x and dv = \frac{1}{x+d}

Edit: I made a mistake. Sorry. For the arctan rule to apply there needs to be an x^2 in the bottom. Maybe you can still do it that way. I don't know.
 
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but the num and den degrees are the same

What does that have to do with anything?
 
wait... if I let u = x+d then x = u-d and int (x/x+d)dx becomes
int(1-d/u)du = u - dlnu = x+d - dln(x+d). Is this correct??

Hurkyl said:
What does that have to do with anything?

You're very helpful :approve:
 
Thanks, I try. :smile:

I was trying to hint that partial fractions still applies when the numerator and denominator have the same degree. (At least, the first step of long division does)
 
Very Simple Way, Here It,

(x)/(x+d) = (x+d-d)/(x+d) = (1) - (d/(x+d))

then the answer will be:

x - d*ln(x+d) + C

hehe, isn't that easy?
 
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The above is correct, except it is "-" instead of "+".
 
HEHE, right, i fixed it :P
 
  • #10
TheDestroyer said:
Very Simple Way, Here It,

(x)/(x+d) = (x+d-d)/(x+d) = (1) - (d/(x+d))

then the answer will be:

x - d*ln(x+d) + C

hehe, isn't that easy?

Ok, I see, thanks. However, I don't understand why the below procedure doesn't work when it's just another simple substitution??

if I let u = x+d then x = u-d and int (x/x+d)dx becomes int(1-d/u)du = u - dlnu = x+d - dln(x+d).
 
  • #11
I don't understand why the below procedure doesn't work when it's just another simple substitution??

Because you forgot the constant of integration.
 
  • #12
I understand that I forgot the constant of integration, but I am referring to the fact that Destroyer's procedure produces: x - dln(x+d) + C while the other procedure produces (x+d) - dln(x+d) + C. Shouldn't they produce the same value considering they are merely two different substitutions?
 
  • #13
Shouldn't they produce the same value considering they are merely two different substitutions?

The two answers are the same.
 
  • #14
no ... x does not equal x+d

you're not helping me here
 
  • #15
Yes he is...he told you the answers were the same. You should have believed him. x is not x + d. But what is d? d is a constant. So did you really get a different answer from TheDestroyer's (lol at the name)? No, you did not. Both answers are valid *antiderivatives*, because when you differentiate them with respect to x, all constant terms drop out...and you end up back with the integrand. So absorb d into C...they are both constant terms. Your new C = C+d. Happy? :wink:
 
  • #16
Ok wait, I just realized I made a mistake at the beginning of the thread. I should have clarified that this isn't an indefinite integral. The limits are from (0 to L) so:

1) let u = x+d then x = u-d
(x/x+d)dx = (1-d/u)du = u - dlnu = x+d - dln(x+d)

from (0 to L) = (L+d) - dln(1+L/d)

2) (x)/(x+d)dx = (x+d-d)/(x+d)dx = (1) - (d/(x+d))dx = x - dln(x+d)

from (0 to L) = L - dln(1+L/d)

am I still missing it, or are they still the same?

PS. forgive for going on and on :blushing:
 
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  • #17
Yes, they are still one and the same. When taking the definite integral, you will subtract one from the other, so:

g(L) - g(0) = L + d - d * \ln(L+d) - (0+d - d * \ln(0+d))<br /> = L - 0 + d - d - d * \ln(L+d) + d * \ln(0+d) = L - d(\ln(L+d) - \ln(d))<br /> = L - d * \ln(L/d + 1)

Notice how the d cancels out the -d (just like the arbitrary constant of integration, C, cancels out) when you take the definite integral.
 
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  • #18
holy crap ... lol. I can't believe I didn't see that
thank you
 
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