eljose
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let be the integral:
\int_0^{\infty}F(x)dx with x\rightarrow\infty F(x)\rightarrow0 then we make the change of variable x=-e^{t} then the new integral would become \int_{-\infty}^{\infty+i\pi}F(-e^t)e^{t}dt my question is if we can ignore the integral from (\infty,\infty+i\pi) so we have only the integral \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}F(-e^t)e^{t}dt as for big value the F(x) tends to 0
\int_0^{\infty}F(x)dx with x\rightarrow\infty F(x)\rightarrow0 then we make the change of variable x=-e^{t} then the new integral would become \int_{-\infty}^{\infty+i\pi}F(-e^t)e^{t}dt my question is if we can ignore the integral from (\infty,\infty+i\pi) so we have only the integral \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}F(-e^t)e^{t}dt as for big value the F(x) tends to 0
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