Integration by Parts: Struggling with Homework

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around an integration problem involving integration by parts, specifically focusing on the integral of a function involving derivatives and a conjugate variable. The original poster expresses confusion regarding the solution provided in a paper and seeks clarification on the integration process.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the application of integration by parts and the simplification of the integral using the product rule. There are attempts to clarify the dependence of the conjugate variable on the integration variable and to derive the correct expression through repeated integration by parts.

Discussion Status

Some participants have offered guidance on simplifying the integral and have shared their interpretations of the integration steps. There is ongoing exploration of the differences in derived expressions, with some participants questioning the assumptions made about the variables involved.

Contextual Notes

There is a noted uncertainty regarding the notation and the dependence of certain variables on the integration limits. The original poster and other participants are navigating through the complexities of the problem without a clear consensus on the correct approach or final expression.

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Homework Statement



Here is a question I'm struggling with. I encountered it in a paper, and although a solution is provided I'm not so sure I understand where they're coming from.

Homework Equations



[tex]\int_{r_1}^{r_2} \overline{v}\frac{1}{r}\frac{d}{dr}(r\frac{du}{dr})rdr[/tex]

where [tex]\overline{v}[/tex] is the conjugate of [tex]v[/tex]

The Attempt at a Solution



I tried using the traditional integration by parts learned in undergraduate calculus courses, but I'm not getting anything close to the solution.

Any help getting started would be appreciated.
 
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I would simplilfy it first before trying to integrate.
[tex]\frac{d}{dr}(r\frac{du}{dr})~=~r\frac{d^2 u}{dr^2} + \frac{du}{dr}[/tex]
Here I'm using the product rule.

Using the differentiated expression above, and doing some other simplification (cancelling the 1/r and r), your first integral becomes
[tex]\int_{r_1}^{r_2} \bar{v}(r\frac{d^2 u}{dr^2} + \frac{du}{dr})dr[/tex]


Now split the above integral into two integrals. That should make the integration a little easier.
 
Mark44 said:
I would simplilfy it first before trying to integrate.
[tex]\frac{d}{dr}(r\frac{du}{dr})~=~r\frac{d^2 u}{dr^2} + \frac{du}{dr}[/tex]
Here I'm using the product rule.

Using the differentiated expression above, and doing some other simplification (cancelling the 1/r and r), your first integral becomes
[tex]\int_{r_1}^{r_2} \bar{v}(r\frac{d^2 u}{dr^2} + \frac{du}{dr})dr[/tex]


Now split the above integral into two integrals. That should make the integration a little easier.

That's right -- I got that far. At this point I'm not sure how to go on. I have some trouble understanding the proper notation.

Could someone assist in continuing?
 
Is v_bar a constant in the integration or does it depend on r?
 
Mark44 said:
Is v_bar a constant in the integration or does it depend on r?

V_bar has dependence on r.
 
What's the expression you're trying to derive?
 
Well the result should be:

[tex]\left[\overline{v}r\frac{du}{dr}\right]_{r_1}^{r_2}-\left[\overline{r}u\frac{\overline{dv}}{dr}\right]_{r_1}^{r_2}+\int_{r_1}^{r_2}(\overline{\frac{d^2 v}{dr^2}+\frac{1}{r}\frac{dv}{dr})rudr[/tex]

Sorry the latex isn't updating, or at least it hasn't yet. Look at the code to see the rest of the equation...
 
OK, they integrated by parts twice. The first time, they used

[tex]f=\overline{v} \mbox{ and } dg=\frac{d}{dr}(ru') dr[/tex]

That gets you the first term and the integral of [itex]ru'\overline{v}'[/itex]. For the second integration by parts, they used

[tex]f=r\overline{v}' \mbox{ and } dg=u' dr[/tex]
 
vela said:
OK, they integrated by parts twice. The first time, they used

[tex]f=\overline{v} \mbox{ and } dg=\frac{d}{dr}(ru') dr[/tex]

That gets you the first term and the integral of [itex]ru'\overline{v}'[/itex]. For the second integration by parts, they used

[tex]f=r\overline{v}' \mbox{ and } dg=u' dr[/tex]

For the second integration I get:

[tex]\left[\overline{v'}ru\right]_{r_1}^{r_2}-\int_{r_1}^{r_2}(u(\overline{v'}+r\frac{d\overline{v'}}{dr})dr[/tex]Which is obviously different than what they got:

[tex]-\left[\overline{r}u\frac{\overline{dv}}{dr}\right]_{r_1}^{r_2}+\int_{r_1}^{r_2}(\overline{\frac{d^2 v}{dr^2}+\frac{1}{r}\frac{dv}{dr})rudr[/tex]
 
Last edited:
  • #10
Is this what you say they got?

[tex]\int_{r_1}^{r_2} (\overline{\frac{d^2 v}{dr^2}+\frac{1}{r}\frac{dv}{dr}}) ru dr[/tex]

If so, it looks the same to me. Why do you think they're different?
 
  • #11
Oh of course. Sorry about that. Many thanks.
 

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