Integration of a gaussian function

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around computing a specific integral involving a Gaussian function, which arises in the context of quantum mechanics homework. The integral is presented as part of a problem from Griffith's textbook, specifically involving the integration of the function \( x e^{-\lambda (x-a)^2} \), where \( \lambda \) and \( a \) are positive constants.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore various methods for solving the integral, including u-substitution and integration by parts. There is a discussion about breaking the integral into two parts to simplify the computation. Some participants question the validity of the steps taken and seek clarification on the results derived from the integrals.

Discussion Status

Several participants have contributed ideas and insights, with some suggesting alternative approaches to the integral. There is an acknowledgment of a potential solution, but also confusion regarding the application of integral identities and the handling of constants. The conversation reflects a mix of understanding and uncertainty, with participants actively engaging in reasoning through the problem.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the importance of correctly applying constants in integrals and the implications of different integral forms found in literature. There is a recognition of the need to clarify assumptions and definitions related to the Gaussian integral and its properties.

JHans
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Hey, all. I need help computing a particular integral that's come up in my quantum mechanics homework (Griffith 1.3 for anyone who's interested). It involves integration of a gaussian function:

\sqrt{\frac{\lambda}{\pi}}\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} \! {x}{e^{{-\lambda}{(x-a)^2}}} \, dx

Where \lambda and a are positive real constants.


For the life of me I cannot figure out how to compute that integral... u-substitution doesn't seem to be an option, and integration by parts just makes things more confusing. Can someone please help me?
 
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JHans said:
Hey, all. I need help computing a particular integral that's come up in my quantum mechanics homework (Griffith 1.3 for anyone who's interested). It involves integration of a gaussian function:

\sqrt{\frac{\lambda}{\pi}}\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} \! {x}{e^{{-\lambda}{(x-a)^2}}} \, dx

Where \lambda and a are positive real constants.


For the life of me I cannot figure out how to compute that integral... u-substitution doesn't seem to be an option, and integration by parts just makes things more confusing. Can someone please help me?

You could do it easily if you had

\sqrt{\frac{\lambda}{\pi}}\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} \! {(x-a)}{e^{{-\lambda}{(x-a)^2}}} \, dx
right? Because then it would be a simple substitution. So write

\sqrt{\frac{\lambda}{\pi}}\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} \! {x}{e^{{-\lambda}{(x-a)^2}}} \, dx = \sqrt{\frac{\lambda}{\pi}}\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} \! {(x-a)}{e^{{-\lambda}{(x-a)^2}}} \, dx + \sqrt{\frac{\lambda}{\pi}}\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} \! {a}{e^{{-\lambda}{(x-a)^2}}} \, dx
and think about how to do the second piece. It should look familiar.
 
I hadn't thought of that! That's a clever trick. Am I correct in thinking the second integral simplifies to:

{\sqrt{\frac{\lambda}{\pi}}\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} \! {a}{e^{{-\lambda}{(x-a)^2}}} \, dx}={a}

And so the integral:


\sqrt{\frac{\lambda}{\pi}}\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} \! {x}{e^{{-\lambda}{(x-a)^2}}} \, dx

is simply the first integral you wrote down (solvable by u-substitution) + a?
 
JHans said:
{\sqrt{\frac{\lambda}{\pi}}\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} \! {a}{e^{{-\lambda}{(x-a)^2}}} \, dx}={a}

How did you obtain a from that? I'm not saying that's wrong, but you need to show how you got it.
 
I'm sorry! Here's the process I went through:

{\sqrt{\frac{\lambda}{\pi}}\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} \! {a}{e^{{-\lambda}{(x-a)^2}}} \, dx}

Because a is a constant, it can be taken out of the integral:

{{a}\sqrt{\frac{\lambda}{\pi}}\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} \! {e^{{-\lambda}{(x-a)^2}}} \, dx}

Then I performed a u-substitution:

{u ={x-a}},{du = dx}

{{a}\sqrt{\frac{\lambda}{\pi}}\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} \! {e^{{-\lambda}{u^2}}} \, du}

I then used a second u-substitution:

{v = {\sqrt{\lambda}u}}, {\frac{dv}{\sqrt{\lambda}} = du}

{{a}\sqrt{\frac{1}{\pi}}\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} \! {e^{{-\lambda}{v^2}}} \, dv}


The integral is the well-known Gaussian integral:

{\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} \! {e^{{-\lambda}{v^2}}} \, dv}={\sqrt{\pi}}

And so I have:

{{a}{\sqrt{\frac{1}{\pi}}}\sqrt{\pi}}={a}
 
Now I'm a bit confused, though... I came across an integral on Wikipedia's list of integrals for exponential functions, and they have this:

\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \! {x}{e^{-a{(x-b)^2}}} \ dx={b\sqrt{\frac{\pi}{a}}}

How does the integral we've broken into two parts become that?
 
Is anyone able to help? This is seriously stumping me.
 
JHans said:
Is anyone able to help? This is seriously stumping me.

You have already been given a complete solution, but it does require some final work on your part.RGV
 
Last edited:
I'm sorry, but I'm having difficulty "seeing" this complete solution and how to work it.

I understand what was said earlier, that:

{\sqrt{\frac{\lambda}{\pi}} \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} \! {x}{e^{-\lambda{(x-a)^2}}} \ dx} = {\sqrt{\frac{\lambda}{\pi}} \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} \! {(x-a)}{e^{-\lambda{(x-a)^2}}} \ dx} + {\sqrt{\frac{\lambda}{\pi}} \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} \! {a}{e^{-\lambda{(x-a)^2}}} \ dx}

It seems to me that the first integral is solvable by u-substitution:

{u=(x-a)}, {du=dx}
{\sqrt{\frac{\lambda}{\pi}} \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} \! {(x-a)}{e^{-\lambda{(x-a)^2}}} \ dx} = {\sqrt{\frac{\lambda}{\pi}} \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} \! {u}{e^{-\lambda{u^2}}} \ dx}

The antiderivative of that integral is:
\frac{-e^{-\lambda{u^2}}}{2\lambda}

Evaluating that antiderivative at the limits of negative and positive infinity seems to yield 0.

Meanwhile, as I've shown about, the second integral can be solved by two round of u-substitution, yielding the constant a. Altogether, then:

{\sqrt{\frac{\lambda}{\pi}} \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} \! {x}{e^{-\lambda{(x-a)^2}}} \ dx}=a

However, that doesn't mesh with the definite integral identity I found online (shown in an earlier reply). Have I gone awry somewhere in my calculations, or is the identity I found incorrect?

EDIT: Nevermind... I realized that in examining the integral identity I found in an integral table, I'd been neglecting to apply the constant in front of the integral. Once I did that, it all clicked and became equivalent to the answer I derived (with help) above. Thank you all so much. I apologize for being a bit dense toward the end.
 
Last edited:

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