Interesting Problem: Probability Theory Limit

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The discussion revolves around calculating the limit of a specific integral involving a bounded, three times continuously differentiable function as n approaches infinity. The suggested approach involves expanding the integrand using a multi-variable Taylor polynomial centered at 0.5 and simplifying the expression. A change of variables is proposed, where y represents the average of the variables, and the challenge lies in determining the multiplier M(y) that accounts for the geometry of the integration. It is hypothesized that the limit may converge to zero, contingent on proving that M(y) increasingly concentrates around y=0.5 as n grows. The conversation encourages further exploration of these mathematical concepts and their implications.
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Hi everybody,

On a probability theory lecture I met an interesting problem:

Let f : [0;1] -> R a bounded, 3 times continously differentiable function. Calculate the following limit

n * \int_0^1 \int_0^1 ... \int_0^1 f(\frac{x_1+...+x_n}n)-f(0.5) dx_1...dx_n while n -> infinity

Any ideas?
 
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As a suggestion: treat the first term as a function of x_1, x_2, ..., x_n, and use the fact that f is three times differentiable to expand the integrand in a multi-variable Taylor polynomial centered at 0.5. Simplify, use the fact that f is bounded to help with the error term, and try to get an expression for the multiple integral at n fixed. IF you can do that, multiply by n and take the limit.

Disclaimer: I haven't tried this, so I cannot give any insight on its correctness or lack thereof, nor of its level of difficulty. It seems like the reasonable approach (thinking back to my probability/math stat courses), but (as my father used to say) it may be "as useless as a hog on ice". Let us know what you find.
 
Looks like the change of variables y = (x1 + x2 + ... + xn)/n might be a good first step. You integrate like:
\int_0^1 M(y)(f(y) - f(0.5)) dy
The tricky part is figuring out the multiplier M(y). For n=2 the multiplier is 2 sqrt(2) min(y, 1-y). For n=3 it is a little more complicated. M(y) is the "area" of the hyperplane portion (x_1 + x_2 + ... + x_n)/n = y, where 0 <= x_i <= 1.

Assuming that the limit as n -> infinity is 0, perhaps all you need to prove about M(y) is that it bulges in the middle more and more as n increases, so eventually nearly all of the integral ends up being near y=0.5.
 
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