Intersecting Bivariate Functions: Is x=a the Only Point of Intersection?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the intersection of bivariate functions, specifically whether the functions ##f(x,a)## and ##f(a,x)## always intersect at the point ##x=a##. It is established that for an intersection to occur, the two functions must be equal, leading to the conclusion that while other points of intersection may exist, the point ##x=a## is a trivial solution. The participants clarify that the equality condition simplifies to ##f(x,x) = f(x,x)##, indicating that the question may have already been addressed in previous discussions.

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Saracen Rue
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Will the bivariate function ##f(x,a)## always intersect ##f(a,x)## at the point ##x=a## given that ##f## is a real, defined function? (other points of intersection can exist but are not relevant for this question)
 
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Hey Saracen Rue.

If you have an intersection then it means that the two things are equal.

So if you had a bivariate function with points (a,b) and (c,d) then an intersection happens when f(a,b) = f(c,d)

You have specified [if I read correctly] that a=x, b=a', c=a', d=x and a'=x meaning that you have f(x,x) = f(x,x) which is trivial.

Are we missing something here?
 

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