jostpuur
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Homework Statement
I'm supposed to prove, that when G is a Lie group, i:G\to G is the inverse mapping i(g)=g^{-1}, then
<br /> i_{*e} v = -v\quad\quad\forall \; v\in T_e G<br />
where i_{*e}:T_e G \to T_e G is the tangent mapping.
Homework Equations
I'm not sure how standard the tangent mapping notation or terminology is, so here's how it is defined on our course. If \phi:M\to N is a smooth function between two manifolds, then for each p\in M
<br /> \phi_{*p}:T_p M\to T_{\phi(p)} N,\quad\quad (\phi_{*p} v) f = v(f\circ \phi)\quad<br /> \forall \; v\in T_p M \quad f:N\to\mathbb{R}<br />
Quick googling revealed that this is often given other notations similar to derivative notations.
The Attempt at a Solution
We can choose some chart x:U\to\mathbb{R}^n, where U\subset G is some environment of the e\in G, so that x(e)=0. After simply writing down some definitions, I was able to show that the result follows if we know
<br /> \partial_j (x_k\circ i\circ x^{-1})(0) = -\delta_{jk}<br />
Here x^{-1}:(x(U)\subset \mathbb{R}^n)\to U is the inverse of the x, x_k:U\to\mathbb{R} is a component mapping of the x, and \partial_j is a normal partial derivative in an Euclidean space.
This is where I ran out of ideas. I have no clue how the group structure gets related to what happens in the chart images. I know that g\mapsto g^{-1} is supposed to be smooth, but this merely justifies the existence of the partial derivative in the above equation.
(btw. I will not return any solution anywhere. I'm preparing to an exam by doing old exercises)
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