Is a Constant Velocity Dispersion a Solution to the Jeans Equations of Galaxy?

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The discussion revolves around proving that a constant velocity dispersion, sigma(r) = sigma0, satisfies the Jeans equation for a galaxy. The user is attempting to substitute this constant into the equation and has derived that sigma0 squared equals GM(<r)/2r. However, they express confusion about how to demonstrate that sigma0 is indeed a solution. They also inquire about the implications of using the stellar density in their calculations. Clarification on these points is sought to fully understand the relationship between the constants and the Jeans equation.
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The equation for the isotropic velocity dispersion of the stars, sigma(r), is
the Jeans equation,
GM(< r)/r^2 = −(1/p*)d/dr(p*sigma^2)
Assume that the stellar density p*(r) = 0.8ptot(r), where ptot(r)~1/r^2,
as derived earlier. Show that a constant velocity dispersion, sigma(r) = sigma0,
is a solution to this equation, and evaluate sigma0 for this galaxy. Express
your answer in km s−1.

From the previous part of the question we have ptot(r)=(kT/2piG(mu)mp)(1/r^2).

basically i don't understand what it means by "show that sigma0 is a solution... i stick it into the equation and come out with sigma0 squared=GM(<r)/2r... but that isn't showing its a solution as such... any help??
 
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