Is Angular Momentum Dependent on Choice of Origin?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the concept of angular momentum in relation to the choice of origin for a particle's motion. The original poster presents a problem involving the calculation of angular momentum based on the particle's displacement and questions whether this quantity is dependent on the selected origin.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the relationship between angular momentum and the choice of origin, with attempts to derive expressions for angular momentum from different reference points. Questions arise regarding how changing the origin affects both the magnitude and direction of the velocity vector.

Discussion Status

Some participants provide insights into the invariance of velocity under translation of the origin, while others question the implications of this on angular momentum. The conversation reflects a mix of interpretations regarding the effects of changing the origin on angular momentum, with no explicit consensus reached.

Contextual Notes

There is a focus on the assumption that the translation of the origin is independent of time, and participants are considering how this affects their calculations and understanding of angular momentum.

rtsswmdktbmhw
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Homework Statement


At time t, particle with mass m has displacement ##\vec r (t)## relative to origin O. Write a formula for its angular momentum about O and discuss whether this depends on choice of origin.

The second part is what I'm more unsure of.

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


##\vec l=\vec r\times\vec p## so at time t, ##\vec l=\vec r(t)\times m\vec v##

For the second part, I wasn't sure what to do. I tried and got as far as this:
##\vec l_2=\vec r_2\times m\vec v_2##
Then ##\vec l-\vec l_2=(\vec r\times m\vec v)-(\vec r_2\times m\vec v_2)##
What now?
 
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The point you're missing is that when you change the origin, the velocity doesn't change(of course if the translation is independent of time):
<br /> \vec v &#039;=\frac{d}{dt}\vec r&#039;=\frac{d}{dt}(\vec r+\vec a)=\frac{d}{dt}\vec r=\vec v<br />
 
What happens if you try to describe the displacement of the particle r(t) from other point as a combination of motions (using the relative movement).

Something like this:
From origin (point O) you know the displacemente is r(t)
From other origin (point A) you know the displacement is rA(t)
Point A does not moves relative to Oringin O

So r(t) can be described also as OA + rA(t)
What does this say to you?
 
I don't understand what you're asking!
 
Shyan said:
The point you're missing is that when you change the origin, the velocity doesn't change(of course if the translation is independent of time):
<br /> \vec v &#039;=\frac{d}{dt}\vec r&#039;=\frac{d}{dt}(\vec r+\vec a)=\frac{d}{dt}\vec r=\vec v<br />
Hm, well the magnitude doesn't change but wouldn't the direction with respect to the second origin be different? But, I gave it a shot (below).

tonyxon22 said:
What happens if you try to describe the displacement of the particle r(t) from other point as a combination of motions (using the relative movement).

Something like this:
From origin (point O) you know the displacemente is r(t)
From other origin (point A) you know the displacement is rA(t)
Point A does not moves relative to Oringin O

So r(t) can be described also as OA + rA(t)
What does this say to you?
Okay, so let ##\vec r_2=\vec r+\vec a## and ##\vec v_2=\vec v## then ##\vec l_2=(\vec r+\vec a)\times m\vec v## and so ##\vec l_2-\vec l=(\vec r+\vec a)\times m\vec v- \vec r\times m\vec v=\vec a\times m\vec v## so depends on where the origin is with respect to the first origin?
 
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rtsswmdktbmhw said:
Hm, well the magnitude doesn't change but wouldn't the direction with respect to the second origin be different? But, I gave it a shot (below).
No, both the direction and the magnitude of the velocity vector remain unchanged. My proof was vectorial!
rtsswmdktbmhw said:
Okay, so let r⃗ 2=r⃗ +a⃗ \vec r_2=\vec r+\vec a and v⃗ 2=v⃗ \vec v_2=\vec v then l⃗ 2=(r⃗ +a⃗ )×mv⃗ \vec l_2=(\vec r+\vec a)\times m\vec v and so l⃗ 2−l⃗ =(r⃗ +a⃗ )×mv⃗ −r⃗ ×mv⃗ =a⃗ ×mv⃗ \vec l_2-\vec l=(\vec r+\vec a)\times m\vec v- \vec r\times m\vec v=\vec a\times m\vec v so depends on where the origin is with respect to the first origin?
That's true but because in general, \vec v changes from point to point in both direction and magnitude, you can say what happens so in general Angular momentum does change in a time independent translation of origin.
 
Ok, thank you very much for the help!
 

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