I Is dfx(y) a dual vector due to linear transformation properties?

LagrangeEuler
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f(\vec{x}+\epsilon \vec{y})-f(\vec{x})=\epsilon \mbox{d}f_{\vec{x}}(\vec{y})+O(\epsilon^2).
Is ##\mbox{d}f_{\vec{x}}(\vec{y})## dual vector and why? Is it because ##\mbox{d}## is linear transformation? Also why equality
f(\vec{x}+\epsilon \vec{y})-f(\vec{x})=\epsilon \mbox{d}f_{\vec{x}}(\vec{y})+O(\epsilon^2)
is correct?
 
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To get a meaningful answer you need to provide more context.

The equality is correct because that is how ##df## is defined. And it is a dual vector because it takes vectors as arguments and gives a number as a result, and it is linear in the argument (the ##\vec{y}## in you expression).
 
A sphere as topological manifold can be defined by gluing together the boundary of two disk. Basically one starts assigning each disk the subspace topology from ##\mathbb R^2## and then taking the quotient topology obtained by gluing their boundaries. Starting from the above definition of 2-sphere as topological manifold, shows that it is homeomorphic to the "embedded" sphere understood as subset of ##\mathbb R^3## in the subspace topology.
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