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Let me try again to explain the difference between cause and correlation.Lynch101 said:If the choices of which observable to be measured had a common cause would they be correlated?
Imagine first that everything in a system is fully determined. The universe since the big bang say.
Now imagine that you have experiment with two people involved. There are two boxes. The first person puts a prize in one of the boxes. The second person gets to open a box and try to win a prize.
Now, let's assume you, at the big bang, can predict exactly what everyone will do in this experiment. Everything to you is completely predictable. But, what you predict will be a mixture of all four possibilities. Prize in box 1, box 1 is chosen; prize in box 1, box 2 is chosen; prize in box 2, box 1 is chosen; prize in box 2 , box 2 is chosen.
To you this was all totally predictable. But, it still represents "random", "uncorrelated" results. There is no correlation between the prize being in box 1 and box 1 being chosen etc.
Now, suppose we find that there is a correlation. Let's assume the prize is never won. It's not enough that the universe is fully deterministic for this to happen. There would need to be a casual chain that enforces opposite choices. But, what law of nature can enforce that for complex systems like human beings 14 billion years later? Especially if this always happens with any two people. In any place at any time.
The answer is no normal law of nature can explain that. You argue as though simple determinism could produce that result. It can't.
That's why determinism cannot explain QM correlations.
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