Is g(f) One-to-One if f is Not One-to-One? Prove It.

major_maths
Messages
30
Reaction score
0
1. Assume that f : A -> B and g : B -> C and that f is not one
to one. Prove that g(f) is not one to one.

2. one-to-one: x1 != x2 and f(x1) != f(x2)
not one-to-one: f(x1)=f(x2) and x1 != x2

3. The start of the proof should go as follows:

Assume f: A->B, g: B -> C, f is not 1-1, g is 1-1.
Since f is not 1-1, there exists an x1 and an x2 in the dom(f) such that f(x1) = f(x2) and x1 != x2.
Since g is 1-1, for every x1 and x2 in dom(f), if x1 != x2 then g(x1) != g(x2).

And that's as far as I got. I'm not sure if I should assume g is 1-1 since that's not explicitly in the instructions, but I don't thing g(f) could be 1-1 if g wasn't 1-1. I tried plugging f(x1) into g but I couldn't find a logical way to get to the conclusion by doing that.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
You don't need to assume anything about g, do you? If f(x1)=f(x2) then g(f(x1))=g(f(x2)), yes? What does that tell you about g(f)?
 
Last edited:
Oh. It tells me that g(f) is not one-to-one. But if that's the case, shouldn't f(x1) = f(x2)? I thought that that was the other part of the definition of not being one-to-one, that if the inputs are different then the outputs should be the same. And since f(x1) and f(x2) are the inputs in this case, shouldn't they be equal?
 
major_maths said:
Oh. It tells me that g(f) is not one-to-one. But if that's the case, shouldn't f(x1) = f(x2)? I thought that that was the other part of the definition of not being one-to-one, that if the inputs are different then the outputs should be the same. And since f(x1) and f(x2) are the inputs in this case, shouldn't they be equal?

I'm really not sure I understand that. Sure, g(f) is not one-to-one. But what 'other part of not being one-to-one' are talking about? If two different inputs give the same output then it's not one-to-one. There is no other part of NOT being one-to-one.
 
Like Dick said, you don't need g to be not 1-1 to obtain the solution. From the hypothesis, there exist x1 and x2 such that f(x1) = f(x2), where f(x1) and f(x2) are members of B. Since g maps B to C, then g is...
 
There are two things I don't understand about this problem. First, when finding the nth root of a number, there should in theory be n solutions. However, the formula produces n+1 roots. Here is how. The first root is simply ##\left(r\right)^{\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)}##. Then you multiply this first root by n additional expressions given by the formula, as you go through k=0,1,...n-1. So you end up with n+1 roots, which cannot be correct. Let me illustrate what I mean. For this...
Back
Top