ammoun
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Hi
When we have f(n) \in o(g(n)) and g(n) \in O(H(n))
Can I proove that h(n)-f(n) \in o(g(n))?
Obviously I don't want you to give me the answer, but some hints and maybe which definitions of O and o I should use.
Thanks
When we have f(n) \in o(g(n)) and g(n) \in O(H(n))
Can I proove that h(n)-f(n) \in o(g(n))?
Obviously I don't want you to give me the answer, but some hints and maybe which definitions of O and o I should use.
Thanks