\int_{t_0}^{t_1}\vec{F}(t)\cdot\vec{v}(t)dt obviously depends on the reference frame.
paradoxes said:
But let's say (relative to the Earth's surface) I lifted the weight at a constant velocity. Since the acceleration is zero the net force has to be zero. Since the net force is zero the net work has to be zero, but the weight is gaining gravitational potential energy so wouldn't the net work then not be zero?
I guess you mean the particle is at rest at the beginning, say \vec{v}(t_0) = 0, then I lift it some meters, and at the end I hold it again, at rest \vec{v}(t_1)=0 but higher than at the beginning.
If we analyze this system with respect to a reference frame bound to the Earth surface AND we suppose it is an inertial frame, then we have:
\int_{t_0}^{t_1}\vec{F}(t)\cdot\vec{v}(t)dt = \frac{1}{2}m v^2(t_1) - \frac{1}{2}m v^2(t_0) = 0
(where \vec{F}(t) is the total force upon the particle)
That is, the total work is cero. What are the forces on the particle?
One is the weight force m\vec{g} on the particle, that is constant, downwards, and conservative. The other force is the force \vec{F}_1(t) you apply upon the particle, and (we can assume to simplify things) this force vertical, upwards, non-constant, and it is not conservative.
At the beginning, F_1(t_0)>mg that is why the particle starts to move upwards.
Nearing the end, that is, for t close to t_1 we know that
F_1(t) < mg, that is why the particle is decreasing its upward speed nearly the end and at the vey end, at t_1, it is at rest again.
We have:
0 = \int_{t_0}^{t_1}\vec{F}(t)\cdot\vec{v}(t)dt = \int_{t_0}^{t_1}(\vec{F_1}(t) + m\vec{g})\cdot\vec{v}(t)dt =
= \int_{t_0}^{t_1}\vec{F_1}(t)\cdot\vec{v}(t)dt + \int_{t_0}^{t_1}m \vec{g}(t)\cdot\vec{v}(t)dt
You have to undertand that (\vec{F_1}(t) + m\vec{g})\cdot\vec{v}(t) > 0 at the beginning, and (\vec{F_1}(t) + m\vec{g})\cdot\vec{v}(t) < 0 nearing the end.
Also you have to understand that \left(\int_{t_0}^{t_1}\vec{F_1}(t)\cdot\vec{v}(t)dt\right) > 0
that \left(\int_{t_0}^{t_1}m \vec{g}(t)\cdot\vec{v}(t)dt\right) < 0 and that
\left|\int_{t_0}^{t_1}\vec{F_1}(t)\cdot\vec{v}(t)dt\right| = \left|\int_{t_0}^{t_1}m \vec{g}(t)\cdot\vec{v}(t)dt\right|
In fact we have that:
\int_{t_0}^{t_1}m \vec{g}(t)\cdot\vec{v}(t)dt = m.g.y(t_0) - m.g.y(t_1) = m g (y(t_0) - y(t_1))
And so we know that:
\int_{t_0}^{t_1}\vec{F_1}(t)\cdot\vec{v}(t)dt = - \int_{t_0}^{t_1}m \vec{g}(t)\cdot\vec{v}(t)dt = - mg(y(t_0) - y(t_1))
So the total work is zero, the Kinetic Energy Increment is zero (the particle is at rest at the beginning and also at rest at the end). The particle has more Gravitational Potential Energy at the end than at the beginning, and that is achieved because of the work done by the (non-conservative) force F_1 you apply upon the particle.
I hope you now understand this important example much better.