danov
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Lets imagine following:
We have an infinite set of numbers representing the time.
Now if we want to know how much time has spent in a specific sequence of this infinite set we see that this is impossible because there is infinite time passed before this sequence and infinite time passed after it because infinite set has no end.
This would i.e. mean that our world (the unvierse, or something our universe is included into) is not infinite(ly) (old). Because we do have time "sequences".
Contrary to that:
If we imagine infinite time as infinite line. This line might be infinite but contrary to the infinite number set we could "see" sequences on it i.e. by making to marks in some distance on this infinite line.
This would mean that our world might be infinite(ly) (old).
What are the logical mistakes / wrong conjectures I am making?
We have an infinite set of numbers representing the time.
Now if we want to know how much time has spent in a specific sequence of this infinite set we see that this is impossible because there is infinite time passed before this sequence and infinite time passed after it because infinite set has no end.
This would i.e. mean that our world (the unvierse, or something our universe is included into) is not infinite(ly) (old). Because we do have time "sequences".
Contrary to that:
If we imagine infinite time as infinite line. This line might be infinite but contrary to the infinite number set we could "see" sequences on it i.e. by making to marks in some distance on this infinite line.
This would mean that our world might be infinite(ly) (old).
What are the logical mistakes / wrong conjectures I am making?