fresh_42 said:
The charming point with axioms is, that they usually reflect statements people don't question, e.g. first order logic. If they are questioned, one can find everyday experiences which would turn absurd. This is not a necessity of an axiomatic system, but a property of those we usually work with.
In real world we usually our domain of discourse is based upon finite number of objects. In that case the logical equivalence of say something like ##\forall x \, [p(x)]## and ##\neg \exists \, [\neg p(x)]## should be taken beyond any reasonable doubt.
However, in mathematics, it seems to me that we are often talking about some infinite collection of objects. The main difference (that I feel) is that there are two factors:
(1) Does LEM apply?
(2) Is the domain of discourse surveyable?
Now considering the domain of number-theoretic assertions. It seems to me that (2) definitely be correct since we are running over natural numbers. I don't know about (1) for sure but even if it is true, I find it a very important and highly non-trivial assumption ... even if my personal inclination is towards it being correct. I have repeated this too many times on this forum (along with more detailed reasons few times) ... so moving on to other points.
Taking (1) and (2) to be both correct, it seems to me that much of our usual ways of thinking should be correct and, in that case, it seems to me that PA should be sound (since I am not comforable with the specifics, I am wording it cautiously).
Taking just (2) to be correct for sure (which it is), it seems to me that con(PA) should be taken as a real problem. But I read somewhere roughly along the lines of, "if one accepts the given well-order of ##\epsilon_0## (in Gentzen's proof) then it is nearly self-evident that PA is consistent". I hardly know anything about the proof but if that is true, then it seems to me that con(PA) should be taken as a settled problem (in positive) ... ofc giving some room for human error (which is "always" a possibility anyway ... even for simple arithmetic ... esp. with very large numbers).
Regarding point(2) in a more general sense, see the second section ("surveyable concepts") in this essay:
https://arxiv.org/pdf/1112.6124.pdf. I linked this because I don't know of any other author mentioning or discussing this particular idea in detail. However, I don't know what is the "limit" of the notion of "surveyable" that the author has in mind. At any rate, this certainly seems to be an important concept.
This is relevant in the specific discussion because it is certainly not clear at all to me why every reasonably formulated statement (even generously assuming that we can answer all reasonable questions about surveyable domains) about an unsurveyable domain should have a definite truth value (and this would probably give rise to being very careful about corresponding rules of inference when dealing with the given unsurveyable domain).
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The shorter answer to OP's question is that many people seem to believe that number-theoretic assertions have definitive content and truth value (though there might not be definitive agreement on the means of arriving at truth). On the other hand, some people definitively seem to doubt the "meaningful content" w.r.t. statements that involve set theory.
In particular, I like the following quote*** (Feferman on the Indefiniteness of CH --- Peter Koellner):
"In what follows I am will exposit and extend Feferman’s critique, argue that each component fails, and conclude that when the dust settles the entire case rests on the claim that the concept of natural number is clear while the concept of arbitrary sets of natural numbers is not clear."
I do not agree or disagree that such a conception is not clear (in principle), but this certainly seems to be an important problem (at least from my naive pov ... as I have mentioned, perhaps too many times, on this forum).
*** Of course I don't understand anything at all about the article :p