Is Mathematical Induction Sufficient to Prove n^2-n+2 Is Even for All Integers?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the question of whether the expression n^2 - n + 2 is even for all integers n, exploring various methods of proof including mathematical induction and direct reasoning based on the parity of n.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants suggest proving the statement by considering cases for odd and even integers n, analyzing the expression n^2 - n + 2 directly.
  • Others propose using mathematical induction, discussing the necessary steps such as establishing a base case and an inductive step.
  • A participant points out a potential misunderstanding in notation, clarifying that n^2 - n + 2 should not be confused with n^{2-n+2}.
  • One participant outlines a proof by induction, detailing the base case and the inductive step, but does not resolve whether this approach is sufficient for all integers.
  • Another participant questions whether proving the statement for n = 1, n = n + 1, and n = n - 1 would suffice for all integers.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the sufficiency of mathematical induction for proving the statement for all integers, with no consensus reached on the validity of the proposed methods.

Contextual Notes

Some participants note the need to clarify whether the proof is intended for all integers or just natural numbers, indicating potential limitations in the scope of the discussion.

Who May Find This Useful

Individuals interested in mathematical proofs, particularly those involving induction and parity arguments, may find this discussion relevant.

spanker1
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help guys i am really stumped on this question.
prove that

if "n" is an integer , then n^2-n+2 is even
 
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Suppose n is odd. What can you say about each member of n^2-n+2 ?
Suppose n is even. What can you say about each member of n^2-n+2?
 
That is one way of thinking about the problem. If you want to do this via induction, however, what is the first step you need to take? Also, are you trying to prove that fact for n is any integer or just a positive integer?
 
to prove by principle of mathemetical induction
step 1:
put n=1
1^2-1+2=1^3=1
which is false
 
lizzie said:
to prove by principle of mathemetical induction
step 1:
put n=1
1^2-1+2=1^3=1
which is false

I think what is meant by n^2-n+2 is n^2 - n +2, not n^{2-n+2} as you seem to use.
 
spanker1 said:
help guys i am really stumped on this question.
prove that

if "n" is an integer , then n^2-n+2 is even

A proof by induction would take the following form:

1. For n = 1, n^2-n+2 is even.
(subproof)
2. Suppose n^2-n+2 is even. Then (n+1)^2-(n+1)+2 is even.
(subproof)
3. By induction (base case 1, inductive step 2), n^2-n+2 is even for all natural numbers n.

If you can fill in the subproofs you're done.

(If you really want all integers, of course, you'll have to prove them too -- maybe by induction on (-n)^2-(-n)+2.)
 
:)

spanker1 said:
help guys i am really stumped on this question.
prove that

if "n" is an integer , then n^2-n+2 is even

hmm...My suggestion :

N^2 - N + 2
= N(N-1) + 2

For any integer N, if N is even , (N-1) is odd therefore N(N-1) is divisible by 2 and is an even #, so , N(N-1) + 2 is even

For any integer N, if N is odd , (N-1) is even therefore N(N-1) is divisible by 2 and is an even #, so , N(N-1) + 2 is even

Is this logical?
 
For n=1, n^2 - n +2 = 2 is even.

Now, suppose that for some integer k, that k^2 -k + 2 is even. Then for the next integer k+1

(k+1)^2 -(k+1) +2 = k^2 + 2k +1 - k -1 +2 = k^2 + k +2

Now

k^2 + k + 2 = (k^2 -k + 2) + 2k

On the RHS, the stuff in bracket is what we started with, we assumed it was even. 2k is even for all integers k. An even number plus an even number is an even number. Therefore for the next integer, it will also be even.

Therefore for all integers n, n^2 -n +2 is even
 
Quick question about induction. Could you prove it true for n = 1. Then prove it for n = n + 1. Then prove it for n = n - 1. Would that be enough to prove it for all integers?
 

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