Is "Multiplication Commutative in Rings?

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The discussion centers on proving the equality (-x) * y = x * (-y) in the context of rings. Participants explore how to demonstrate that -1 * -1 equals 1, using the distributive property and properties of additive inverses. The argument is built around the fact that -1 and 1 are additive inverses, leading to the conclusion that -1 * -1 must equal 1. The proof is reinforced by showing that the product of -1 with itself results in the multiplicative identity. The conversation concludes with agreement on the validity of the proof.
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Is (-x) * y = x * (-y) true for all rings?

It seems simple enough but I feel like * must be commutative when trying to prove this.
 
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Never mind, I have it.

But how can I show that -1 * -1 = 1 where 1 is the multiplicative identity?
 
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Use the distributive property with
(-1)(1+(-1))=0
 
lurflurf said:
Use the distributive property with
(-1)(1+(-1))=0
Cool,

(-1)(1) + (-1)(-1) = 0
-1 + (-1)(-1) = 0

(-1)(-1) = 1 by definition
 
1MileCrash said:
Cool,

(-1)(1) + (-1)(-1) = 0
-1 + (-1)(-1) = 0

(-1)(-1) = 1 by definition
Not by definition.

1 + (-1) = 0 since 1 and -1 are additive inverses of each other
-1(1 + (-1)) = -1(0) = 0, since 0 times anything is 0.
-1(1) + (-1)(-1) = 0
Since -1(1) and (-1)(-1) add to zero, they are additive inverses.
We know that -1(1) = -1, since 1 is the multiplicative identity,
so -1(-1) must equal 1.
 
Mark44 said:
Not by definition.

1 + (-1) = 0 since 1 and -1 are additive inverses of each other
-1(1 + (-1)) = -1(0) = 0, since 0 times anything is 0.
-1(1) + (-1)(-1) = 0
Since -1(1) and (-1)(-1) add to zero, they are additive inverses.
We know that -1(1) = -1, since 1 is the multiplicative identity,
so -1(-1) must equal 1.

Yes, exactly.
 
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