Is Probability Relative?

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The discussion centers on the relativity of probability in the context of different observers and its implications for unifying quantum mechanics and relativity. It suggests that for two inertial observers observing the same quantum phenomenon, the probability distribution can be transformed according to Lorentz transformations, maintaining the same probability for events in different frames. There is a debate about whether this topic belongs in a math forum or a physics forum, with some participants advocating for its relevance to physics due to the physical implications of probability. The conversation also touches on Bayesian statistics, indicating that probabilities can differ based on the prior information available to observers. Additionally, Bertrand's Paradox is mentioned, highlighting the complexities of randomness and the subjective nature of probability. The phrase "Choice Changes Chance" is questioned, suggesting a deeper philosophical inquiry into the nature of probability and observation.
Loren Booda
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Is it possible for the probability of an event to be relative, i. e. valued differently for different objective observers? Does this say anything pertinent about the feasibility of unifying quantum mechanics and relativity?
 
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Just doing the calculations informally in my head, it seems to me, that for two inertial observers, of a same quantum phenomenon, the probability distribution is modified just so that an event happens at (x,t) in S with probability P, then it happens in at (x',t') in S' with the same probability, where (x',t') is related to (x,t) by a Lorentz transformation.

But what I don't understand is why you posted the question in the math forum. It is not the task of math to say what is and what is not physically possible. A mathematician just has to say "Let P1 be the probability of the event according to S and let P' be the probability of the event according to S'" and it's done.
 
quasar987,

On second thought, I should have posted this in the General Physics forum. Maybe a moderator will transfer it there.
 
You can always report your own post. Hit the Report button under your little medal name and say this post belongs in the GR forum. I do it all the time.
 
Probabilities can be different for two different observers if they have access to different prior information.

Look at Bayesian statistics and conditional probabilities.
 
Loren Booda said:
Is it possible for the probability of an event to be relative, i. e. valued differently for different objective observers?

Please have a look at Bertrand's Paradox. Depending on the notion of randomness of the observer, the problem has three different answers.
 
My SWAG on Bertrand? Something to do with Aleph1 probabilities expressed as those of Aleph0.
 
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Of what veracity is the statement "Choice Changes Chance"?
 

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