- #1

eljose79

- 1,518

- 1

g(x)=Int(-1,1)exp(-xy)f(y)dy (2) then this is equal to

g(x)=Int(-infinite,infinite)exp(-xy)f(y)W(y)dy where the W(y) function is defined like that:

W(y) is 1 iif -1<y<1 and 0 elsewhere.

then we would have that the equation (2) is a Fourier transform and inverting we can get f(x)W(x).

Is all that?..i can not believe that solving an integral equation could be so easy...