harrylin said:
It sounds as if you disagree with Einstein's remark about SR, that 'these two postulates suffice for the attainment of a simple and consistent theory of the electrodynamics of moving bodies based on Maxwell's theory for stationary bodies'.
I don't disagree with Einstein's remark at all, but I disagree with what you think it means. At the time, physicists knew how to apply Maxwell's equations to stationary systems (for classical phenomena), but there were some recognized ambiguities and uncertainties in how to apply Maxwell's equations to moving systems, since it was unclear how motion relative to a putative ether might affect the results. For example, many people were surprised at the results of experiments like Trouton & Noble, etc. Einstein's statement simply asserts that, based on the two foundational postulates, we can apply Maxwell's equations unambiguously to any system in any uniform state of motion, by solving it using "Maxwell's theory for stationary bodies" in terms of coordinates in which the system is at rest, and then (by applying the Lorentz transformation) converting the result to a frame in which the system is in motion. This eliminates the ambiguities and uncertainties in how to apply Maxwell's equations to moving systems. (We have to limit this to low or no acceleration, because accelerating charges imply back-reaction and other features for which classical electrodynamics never gave a fully self-consistent account.) As he put it elsewhere in the same paper:
"All problems in the optics of moving bodies can be solved by the method here employed. What is essential is, that the electric and magnetic force of the light which is influenced by a moving body, be transformed into a system of co-ordinates at rest relatively to the body. By this means all problems in the optics of moving bodies will be reduced to a series of problems in the optics of stationary bodies."
The statement you quoted was obviously just summarizing this, and it is perfectly true, but it does not imply that special relativity was based on Maxwell's equations. To the contrary, the statement you quoted says explicitly that special relativity is based on the two foundational postulates. Then, given special relativity, we can (as Einstein said) solve any problem for a moving system that we can solve for a stationary system. Note that this doesn't pre-suppose that Maxwell's equations are perfectly valid, and in fact Einstein already knew they weren't. (For example, he knew that light has behavior that is inconsistent with the classical wave conception, and that is more consistent with the classical ballistic conception.) It simply says that special relativity suffices to allow us to apply Maxwell's equations to moving systems based on how those equations work for stationary systems. This does not imply that special relativity is based on Maxwell's equations.
harrylin said:
SR is not the same as SR+QM.
Sure, but if SR was based on Maxwell's equations, then SR+QM would be self-contradictory, because Maxwell+QM is self-contradictory. The very fact that SR is compatible with QM (or, more accurately, QFT, since the original QM was not Lorentz invariant) proves that SR was not "based on" Maxwell's equations.
Now, we obviously have to be careful what we mean by "based on". Certainly both Newton's laws (with Galilean relativity) and Maxwell's equations were important guides in the development of special relativity, and the theory obviously needed to be compatible with those things, at least to the extent that those things were empirically successful. For example, the laws of mechanics must reduce to Newton's laws in the low speed limit. So, if you use the term "based on" in this very loose and informal way, then special relativity was "based on" a great many things, including ballistic theories. But your comments suggest that Maxwell's equations and the "wave model" of light are part of the foundations of special relativity. That is clearly false, as proven by the fact that the current best theory of light (QED) is not at all a classical wave theory (in 3+1 dimensional spacetime) and yet it is consistent with special relativity. Yes, Maxwell's equations exhibit Lorentz invariance, but special relativity is based on Lorentz invariance, not on Maxwell's equations. As Einstein said, the key insight of special relativity was that the significance of the Lorentz transformation
transcended its connection with Maxwell's equations.
Einstein specifically said that he already knew in 1905 that Maxwell's equations couldn't claim unlimited validity and that this is why he chose not to take Maxwell's equations as part of the foundation of special relativity. The words you quoted don't contradict this.
harrylin said:
Both wave theory and emission theory are compatible with the first postulate...
Sure, and they are both compatible with the second postulate too. That's the point. Special relativity laid the framework for theories in which light has attributes that were classically associated with waves and other attributes that were classically associated with particles. So, the claim that special relativity embodies a decision in favor of the wave model of light completely misses the point of what special relativity accomplished.