- #1
Abdulwahab Hajar
- 56
- 2
Okay so I understand that in order to represent a vector which is in cartesian coordinates in spherical coordinates.. we use the transformation which is obtained by dotting the unit vectors.
So my question goes like this:
when we dot for example the unit vector ar^ with x^ we obtain sin(theta) * cos(phi), however can't the dot product be interpreted as the magnitudes multiplied by the cos of the angle between them.
In this case the magnitudes are 1 because they are unit vectors but how can sin(theta) * cos(phi) equal cos(angle between ar^ and x^)
I know my notation sucks please pardon me it's my first time posting... I have no notation at all :(
Thank you for the help
So my question goes like this:
when we dot for example the unit vector ar^ with x^ we obtain sin(theta) * cos(phi), however can't the dot product be interpreted as the magnitudes multiplied by the cos of the angle between them.
In this case the magnitudes are 1 because they are unit vectors but how can sin(theta) * cos(phi) equal cos(angle between ar^ and x^)
I know my notation sucks please pardon me it's my first time posting... I have no notation at all :(
Thank you for the help