Is the function riemann integrable? havent got a clue

  • Thread starter Thread starter natasha d
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Function Riemann
natasha d
Messages
19
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



f:[0,1]→R where f(x)= 0 if x=0 and f(x)=1/n when 1/(1+n) < x ≤ 1/n, n \in N.
is f Riemann integrable

Homework Equations



R integrable only when L(f) =U(f)
L(f) = largest element of the set of lower sums for n partitions
U(f) = least element of the set of upper sums for n partitions

f is R integrable if the function has finite discontinuities

The Attempt at a Solution


tried plotting a graph, where the function is constant on intervals [1/(1+n) , 1/n] since all x in between take the value 1/n
that gives me intervals on which f is R integrable except at 1/(1+n)
but that also gives ∞ such R integrable intervals, which means ∞ discontinuities...
On an interval the lower sum = the upper sum
= length of the interval X F(x)
= [(1/n)-(1/(1+n))] X (1/n)

the total integral will be the summation with n → ∞ ?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Hey natasha d and welcome to the forums.

It looks like this function for each realization of n (i.e. each value of the natural numbers) will simply be a box in the given interval.

You say that it's defined to be 0 at x = 0, but what about outside the interval of the box (i.e. outside of (1/(n+1),1/n]? Because n will be constant for a particular realization of a natural number, it means the interval will be finite which means that it will look more or less like a single box with two discontinuities if it is defined everywhere else to be zero.

The question I have is, "Is the function defined to be zero everywhere outside the above interval, or does it have a different definition?"
 
what 'box'? um.. on the interval [0,1] f(x)=0 only at x=0, everywhere else the value of f for an x will be the 1/n value x is less than or equal to..
i thought that meant in, say, [1/2,1], f(x)=1 , except at x=1/2
did i miss something?
 
There is a fundamental theorem that says that a function is Riemann integrable on an interval if and only if it has only "jump" discontinuities and the set of discontinuities on the interval has (Lesbesque measure) 0. Here the set of discontinuities is the set of numbers 1/n which is countable and so has measure 0.
 
There are two things I don't understand about this problem. First, when finding the nth root of a number, there should in theory be n solutions. However, the formula produces n+1 roots. Here is how. The first root is simply ##\left(r\right)^{\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)}##. Then you multiply this first root by n additional expressions given by the formula, as you go through k=0,1,...n-1. So you end up with n+1 roots, which cannot be correct. Let me illustrate what I mean. For this...

Similar threads

Back
Top