Is the Källen-Lehmann Representation a Feature of Quantum Field Theory?

  • Thread starter Thread starter lonelyphysicist
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Representation
lonelyphysicist
Messages
32
Reaction score
0
I have two basic questions about the full propagator (2-point function) in QFT. Am I correct that for a scalar field, it is

\frac{iZ}{p^{2}-m^{2}+i \epsilon} + \int_{m^{2}}^{\infty} dX \frac{\rho[X]}{p^{2}-X+i \epsilon} ?

(1) Is this form of the propagator a feature of _quantum_ field theory? What if we have a nonlinear classical field theory? Would there still be something like that? Maybe Z = 1 (I'm not even sure about this) but perhaps we'd still have the term involving the integral?

(2) In QFT we seem to compute Z iteratively -- we compute 2-point function iteratively, up to a given number of loops -- and then we introduce Z's and mu's (if we're doing dimensional regularization). What about the term involving the integral? I don't recall it ever coming up except when the Källen-Lehmann rep is mentioned. Also, what about bound states; where does it come in?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
lonelyphysicist said:
I have two basic questions about the full propagator (2-point function) in QFT. Am I correct that for a scalar field, it is

\frac{iZ}{p^{2}-m^{2}+i \epsilon} + \int_{m^{2}}^{\infty} dX \frac{\rho[X]}{p^{2}-X+i \epsilon} ?
Yes, that is correct. ##\rho\left(X\right)##, typically denoted ##\rho\left(M^2\right)##, is often a sum of delta functions for isolated particles and bound states and some continuous function for the higher mass spectrum.

lonelyphysicist said:
(1) Is this form of the propagator a feature of _quantum_ field theory? What if we have a nonlinear classical field theory? Would there still be something like that? Maybe Z = 1 (I'm not even sure about this) but perhaps we'd still have the term involving the integral?
Nothing like this at all. In a classical field theory one simply has the single configuration that occurs so something like
$$\langle \phi(x)\phi(y)\rangle$$
is just
$$\phi(x)\phi(y)$$
That is the product of the field values at those two points.

lonelyphysicist said:
(2) In QFT we seem to compute Z iteratively -- we compute 2-point function iteratively, up to a given number of loops -- and then we introduce Z's and mu's (if we're doing dimensional regularization). What about the term involving the integral? I don't recall it ever coming up except when the Källen-Lehmann rep is mentioned. Also, what about bound states; where does it come in?
It will come up as soon as you move beyond tree level, whereupon the two-point function will have a more complex form than
$$\frac{i}{p^2 - m^2 +i\epsilon}$$

Bound states show up as I mentioned above, delta functions in ##\rho\left(M^2\right)##, and contribute terms like
$$\frac{i}{p^2 - m_{b}^{2} +i\epsilon}$$
where ##m_b## is the bound state mass.

Typically though bound states are higher in energy than the two particle threshold which gives the continuous part of ##\rho\left(M^2\right)## and so you wouldn't typically see this term in an obvious fashion after doing perturbative computations.
 
Insights auto threads is broken atm, so I'm manually creating these for new Insight articles. Towards the end of the first lecture for the Qiskit Global Summer School 2025, Foundations of Quantum Mechanics, Olivia Lanes (Global Lead, Content and Education IBM) stated... Source: https://www.physicsforums.com/insights/quantum-entanglement-is-a-kinematic-fact-not-a-dynamical-effect/ by @RUTA
If we release an electron around a positively charged sphere, the initial state of electron is a linear combination of Hydrogen-like states. According to quantum mechanics, evolution of time would not change this initial state because the potential is time independent. However, classically we expect the electron to collide with the sphere. So, it seems that the quantum and classics predict different behaviours!

Similar threads

Replies
1
Views
727
Replies
13
Views
2K
Replies
1
Views
2K
Replies
6
Views
2K
Replies
4
Views
2K
Replies
4
Views
2K
Back
Top