Is the Potential in a Particle's Potential Well Always Real?

AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on whether the potential in a particle's potential well is always real, focusing on the implications of complex conjugate energies in quantum mechanics. The equation presented involves a particle with mass m=1/2 and explores the relationship between normalized eigenfunctions of the Hamiltonian and the potential's nature. The argument suggests that if the potential is complex, its imaginary part must be zero to maintain real energy values, leading to the conclusion that the complex part of the potential is negligible. Additionally, there are technical issues with LaTeX formatting that hinder further discussion. The inquiry remains unresolved, emphasizing the need for clarity in mathematical expressions.
eljose
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let be a particle in a potential well with mass m=1/2 so we have the equation:

(p^{2}+V(x))\phi=E_{n}\phi

we don,t know if V is real or complex but we have that if En is an energy,its complex conjugate En^*=Ek is also another energy of the system,my question is if the potential is real...

Proof?:taking normalized Eigenfunctions of the Hamiltonian...with <\phi|\phi>=1 then we would have:

(<\phi_{n}|T+V|\phi_{n}>)^{*}=(<\phi_{k}|T+V|\phi_{k}>)

so in the end separating and knowing that <\phi|p^{2}|\phi> is always real then we would have that:

\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}|\phi_{n}|^{2}V^*(x)-int_{-\infty}^{\infty}|\phi_{k}|^{2}V(x)=r with r a real number...

so we would have for every k and n and complex part of the potential b(x) that:

} (|\phi_{n}|^{2}+|\phi_{k}|^{2})b(x)dx=0

so the complex part of the potential is 0...is that true?
 
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I'm not able to load your LaTeX graphics ... so I can't comment.
(maybe that's why nobody *else* is responding, either.)
 
It looks like you're trying to end [ tex ] code with [ / tex ],
instead of [ \tex ] . Should be an easy edit fix!
 
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