eljose
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let be a particle in a potential well with mass m=1/2 so we have the equation:
(p^{2}+V(x))\phi=E_{n}\phi
we don,t know if V is real or complex but we have that if En is an energy,its complex conjugate En^*=Ek is also another energy of the system,my question is if the potential is real...
Proof?:taking normalized Eigenfunctions of the Hamiltonian...with <\phi|\phi>=1 then we would have:
(<\phi_{n}|T+V|\phi_{n}>)^{*}=(<\phi_{k}|T+V|\phi_{k}>)
so in the end separating and knowing that <\phi|p^{2}|\phi> is always real then we would have that:
\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}|\phi_{n}|^{2}V^*(x)-int_{-\infty}^{\infty}|\phi_{k}|^{2}V(x)=r with r a real number...
so we would have for every k and n and complex part of the potential b(x) that:
} (|\phi_{n}|^{2}+|\phi_{k}|^{2})b(x)dx=0
so the complex part of the potential is 0...is that true?
(p^{2}+V(x))\phi=E_{n}\phi
we don,t know if V is real or complex but we have that if En is an energy,its complex conjugate En^*=Ek is also another energy of the system,my question is if the potential is real...
Proof?:taking normalized Eigenfunctions of the Hamiltonian...with <\phi|\phi>=1 then we would have:
(<\phi_{n}|T+V|\phi_{n}>)^{*}=(<\phi_{k}|T+V|\phi_{k}>)
so in the end separating and knowing that <\phi|p^{2}|\phi> is always real then we would have that:
\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}|\phi_{n}|^{2}V^*(x)-int_{-\infty}^{\infty}|\phi_{k}|^{2}V(x)=r with r a real number...
so we would have for every k and n and complex part of the potential b(x) that:
} (|\phi_{n}|^{2}+|\phi_{k}|^{2})b(x)dx=0
so the complex part of the potential is 0...is that true?