says
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so ker(fh) = span {(1,0,0,h), (0,1,1,0), (0,h,0,0)}
As we have ##f_h(a,b,c,d)=(a+b+c+hd,b+c,-b-c-hd,hb)## (writing everything as vectors), we get:says said:so ker(fh) = span {(1,0,0,h), (0,1,1,0), (0,h,0,0)}
mfb said:Okay, now reduce this step by step to find the kernel for all real values of h. As an example, what is the kernel for h=10?
You are not fully done with simplifications here.says said:1a+0+0+0=0
0+1b+1c+0=0
0+0+0+10d=0
0+10b+0+0=0
Is the kernel really given by that? That's a 4-dimensional subspace, which means it is the whole space. Is everything mapped to zero?ker(fh) = span {(1a,0,0,0), (0,1b,1c,0), (0,0,0,10d), (0,10b,0,0}
Yes, at least for most values of h.says said:1+0+0+0=0
0+0+1+0=0
0+0+0+1=0
0+1+0+0=0
a=b=c=d=0
One result from your matrix equation issays said:I don't understand what you mean sorry
Right.says said:if h = 0 then b could be any real number
It's fh when h = 0 .says said:What is f0?
Let's doublecheck:says said:ker fh = span {(1,0,0,0), (0,1,1,0)}
There is another vector (independent of this) in the kernel of f0 .says said:ker fh = span {(0,1,-1,0)}
when h=0
How about you go back to the matrix equation you had in post #41, substitute h=0, and solve?says said:but there is only one independent variable though. I thought that would mean only one vector? Unless the other vector is just (0,-1,1,0)
One of those is redundant, another is wrong. Please post your working.says said:ker(fh) = span {(0,-1,1,0) , (0,1,-1,0) , (1,1,1,0)}
(0,1,-1,0) and (0,-1,1,0) are redundant.says said:1+1+1+h=0
0-1-1-h=0
0+1+1+0=0
0+h+0+0=0
making h=0
1+1+1+0=0
0-1-1-0=0
0+1+1+0=0
0+0+0+0=0
if b=1 c=-1 then the first equation a =0
ker(fh)= span {(0,1,-1,0) , (0,-1,1,0)}
They are redundant because they are not linearly independent:says said:I don't understand how they are redundant if they are two different vectors?
One is simply -1 times the other. I.e. their sum is zero.says said:d=0
I don't understand how they are redundant if they are two different vectors?
It's not, and Samy_A demonstrated that.says said:Ok, I understand that, but how can the first equation (1,1,1,0) be in ker(fh) 1+1+1+0=0 as well?
SammyS said:There is another vector (independent of this) in the kernel of f0 .
Again I ask, What value must d have if 0⋅d = 0 ?says said:The only other vector I can think of is the zero vector. (0,0,0,0)
Yes.says said:d can be any value 0*d=0
0*1=0
0*-1=0
0*0=0
That's not correct.says said:(1,0,0,-1)
For h = 0, (1,1,1,h) → (1,1,1,0) so that if a=b=c=0, then d does not need to be zero.says said:Because the first equation was (1,1,1,h) = 1+1+1+hd. If d=-1 then can't b and c = 0, making a = 1?
That's right.says said:the transformation always has d as a product with h though. so even if d=1 or -1 in the polynom it will still be 0 in the matrix
There is no value of d which keeps this from being the 2×2 zero matrix.So, how to you write that as a vector?SammyS said:Actually, once you decide to look at h=0, then the original statement of the problem can be used to find Ker f0 by inspection.
##\displaystyle \ f_0(a + bx + cx^2 + dx^3) = \pmatrix{a+b+c+0&b+c\\-b-c-0 & 0} \ ##
In the spirit of your previous submissions, why notsays said:(0,1,-1,1) and (0,1,-1,-1)
Please start a new thread. This one is now at 95 posts. Let's put this one out of its misery...says said:There is a second part to this question asking if there are any values of h ∈ R such that fh is not an isomorphism? Not sure if I should ask this in a new post or not. I'm not too sure where to start. I've found this problem extremely difficult.