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I've read that matter and energy fields occupy all of space, and that space is integral with time, so I'm wondering whether it might be consistent with contemporary physics for undetectably small proportions of the mass of matter and / or energy to occupy arbitrarily large proportions of an infinite spacetime. (I'm assuming that levels registered as "zero" would be indistinguishable from "undetectably small" levels, since the resources that could be devoted to their registration would always remain less than infinite.)
Let me make clear that, by infinite spacetime, I'm meaning just that: infinite space and infinite (both "past-eternal" and "future-eternal") time. Also, I'm including gravity with energy, since I've heard that it functions as "negative energy" in the context of General Relativity.
However, if consistency with our physics over arbitrarily large proportions of spacetime might exist for any "positive" and / or "negative" versions of energy and / or matter, while it would be prohibited for any of the others, I'd like to know that as well. By the same token, I'm hoping someone really familiar with this stuff could let the rest of us know whether it might just be the case for spacelike separations without being the case for timelike separations. My very sketchy knowledge of the subject has me guessing that it would be the case for lightlike separations, but, if that more specific conclusion is wrong, I'd like to know.
Thanks very much, in advance, for whatever help you can give me in making sense out of the mishmash of terminology involved. (Yes, I'm sorry I don't know much math, but, if it can be pronounced, it can be put into verbal language, and that's where its application might help with a few social issues.)
Let me make clear that, by infinite spacetime, I'm meaning just that: infinite space and infinite (both "past-eternal" and "future-eternal") time. Also, I'm including gravity with energy, since I've heard that it functions as "negative energy" in the context of General Relativity.
However, if consistency with our physics over arbitrarily large proportions of spacetime might exist for any "positive" and / or "negative" versions of energy and / or matter, while it would be prohibited for any of the others, I'd like to know that as well. By the same token, I'm hoping someone really familiar with this stuff could let the rest of us know whether it might just be the case for spacelike separations without being the case for timelike separations. My very sketchy knowledge of the subject has me guessing that it would be the case for lightlike separations, but, if that more specific conclusion is wrong, I'd like to know.
Thanks very much, in advance, for whatever help you can give me in making sense out of the mishmash of terminology involved. (Yes, I'm sorry I don't know much math, but, if it can be pronounced, it can be put into verbal language, and that's where its application might help with a few social issues.)