Is there a way to calculate this difficult integral analytically?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the calculation of a complex integral of the form I=\int_{0}^{\infty}\exp(iax)\frac{(x^2+b^2)^{-c}}{x+id}dx, where participants explore the possibility of finding an analytical solution, particularly through series expansion or contour integration techniques.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant expresses doubt about the possibility of calculating the integral analytically and suggests using a series expansion as an alternative approach.
  • Another participant claims they can find a closed-form solution and inquires if the original poster is still interested in the solution.
  • A subsequent reply confirms continued interest and requests details on the proposed method for solving the integral.
  • One participant retracts their earlier assertion, stating that their reasoning only applies when b = 0.
  • The same participant expresses curiosity about the method for the case when b = 0, despite their earlier doubts.
  • A further reply discusses the use of contour integrals, specifically mentioning the keyhole contour method and its implications for the integral when b = 0, while also noting complications regarding the contribution from the outer circle in the contour integration.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants do not reach a consensus on the feasibility of calculating the integral analytically. There are competing views on the applicability of different methods, particularly regarding the case when b = 0.

Contextual Notes

Limitations include the dependency on the value of b and unresolved aspects of the contour integration approach, particularly concerning the behavior of the integral at infinity.

bruno67
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I am trying to calculate an integral of the form


I=\int_{0}^{\infty}\exp(iax)\frac{(x^2+b^2)^{-c}}{x+id}dx,


where a,b,d\in\mathbb{R} and c>0. I don't think it's possible to do it analytically (at least I couldn't do it). Is there a way to calculate the "exact" value by using a series expansion, perhaps?
 
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I think i can do it analytically in closed form. Are you still interested (as you posted it in april)? (otherwise I won't be bothered to type it out)
 
mr. vodka said:
I think i can do it analytically in closed form. Are you still interested (as you posted it in april)? (otherwise I won't be bothered to type it out)

Yes, I am still interested, and I haven't been able to find the solution. How do you think it can be done?
 
My apologies, I was too hasty, my reasoning only works for b = 0... :(
 
mr. vodka said:
My apologies, I was too hasty, my reasoning only works for b = 0... :(
Still, I would be curious to know how you did it, even for b=0.
 
shoot, seems I'm wrong again: my idea was to play with contour integrals.
For example, if b = 0, you can lay the branchcut of z^c on the positive real axis and then integrate of a keyhole contour (google image "keyhole contour" if you don't know what shape i mean), then on the bottom line you'd get -e^{-2 \pi i c} I (with I the integral you're interested in), and on the top line obviously I itself. The contribution of the origin could be controlled, I think (for the simple case of 0 < c < 1 it will go to zero, for c > 1 i think you can also get the answer but haven't thought it through). The sum of the contour integral would then equal 2 \pi i \frac{e^{ad-ic3\pi/2}}{d^c} (where I used the residue of the integrand in z = -id for the case of d > 0; analogous expression for d < 0). Anyway the problem is that the contribution from the outer circle doesn't go to zero. That's the problem. Stupid of me, posted too hastily.
 

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