Is There an Easier Proof for Proving Irreducibility of Polynomials?

  • Thread starter Thread starter mathwonk
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Polynomials
mathwonk
Science Advisor
Homework Helper
2024 Award
Messages
11,930
Reaction score
2,191
im teeching algebra and had to prove that X^5 - 8 was irreducible over the rationals. so i did it using eisenstein.

then more generally i seem to have proved that X^n - a is irreducible over the rationals whenever it has no rational root.


but i used galois theory, and the course I am teching does not have that in it.

is there an easier proof? I am a rookie at this stuff.

thanks

:smile:
 
Physics news on Phys.org
That doesn't seem to be true in general, x^4-4=(x^2-2)(x^2+2), but it has no rational root.
 
x^5-8 = \prod _{k=1}^5(x-\alpha\xi ^k)

where \xi is one of the non-real fifth-roots of unity, and \alpha is the real fifth-root of 8. It's clear that this polynomial isn't reducible over the rationals into a product of linear factors, so if it were reducible over the rationals, it would have an irreducible-over-Q factor which would be a product of 2, 3, or 4 of the (x-\alpha\xi ^k). The constant term of this irreducible factor would have a constant term of the form \pm\alpha ^j \xi ^{k_1 + \dots + k_j} where j is 2, 3, or 4, and the ki are in {1,2,3,4,5}. If \alpha ^j is rational, then so is \alpha ^{gcd(5,j)} = \alpha. It's easy to prove this false, in a similar manner that we prove 21/2 is irrational. So \alpha ^j is irrational, hence so is \pm\alpha ^j\xi ^{k_1 + \dots + k_j}, and so this factor which was supposedly an irreducible polynomial over Q is not a polynomial over Q at all, so there is no such factor, and so the original polynomial is indeed irreducible over Q.
 
Last edited:
sorry, i meant x^n -a where n is prime.
 
x^5 -8 or x^p - n^k is easy since the field generated by a root is contained in Q[n^(1/p)] which has degree p by eisenstein if n is not a pth root. so Q[(n^k/p)] is a subfield of a field of prime degree, hence either the root is already in Q or the field is of degree p also.
 
##\textbf{Exercise 10}:## I came across the following solution online: Questions: 1. When the author states in "that ring (not sure if he is referring to ##R## or ##R/\mathfrak{p}##, but I am guessing the later) ##x_n x_{n+1}=0## for all odd $n$ and ##x_{n+1}## is invertible, so that ##x_n=0##" 2. How does ##x_nx_{n+1}=0## implies that ##x_{n+1}## is invertible and ##x_n=0##. I mean if the quotient ring ##R/\mathfrak{p}## is an integral domain, and ##x_{n+1}## is invertible then...
The following are taken from the two sources, 1) from this online page and the book An Introduction to Module Theory by: Ibrahim Assem, Flavio U. Coelho. In the Abelian Categories chapter in the module theory text on page 157, right after presenting IV.2.21 Definition, the authors states "Image and coimage may or may not exist, but if they do, then they are unique up to isomorphism (because so are kernels and cokernels). Also in the reference url page above, the authors present two...
When decomposing a representation ##\rho## of a finite group ##G## into irreducible representations, we can find the number of times the representation contains a particular irrep ##\rho_0## through the character inner product $$ \langle \chi, \chi_0\rangle = \frac{1}{|G|} \sum_{g\in G} \chi(g) \chi_0(g)^*$$ where ##\chi## and ##\chi_0## are the characters of ##\rho## and ##\rho_0##, respectively. Since all group elements in the same conjugacy class have the same characters, this may be...
Back
Top