Is this a valid proof? (proof that if 2|n and 3|n then 6|n)

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the validity of a proof concerning divisibility, specifically that if 2 divides n and 3 divides n, then 6 divides n. The subject area is number theory, focusing on properties of divisibility and prime numbers.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore different formulations of the proof, with some questioning the assumptions made about the existence of an integer k that relates to the product of primes. Others discuss the implications of the greatest common divisor (gcd) in the context of divisibility.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants providing insights into the proof's structure and validity. Some guidance has been offered regarding the necessity of explicitly stating assumptions and definitions related to divisibility. There is recognition of the need for clarity in arguments, particularly regarding the relationship between divisors and the integers involved.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the definitions of divisibility and the properties of prime numbers are central to the discussion. There is also mention of the importance of stating assumptions clearly when constructing proofs.

TalkOrigin
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Hi, I wasn't sure whether to post this here or in the pre-calc forum, so apologies if this is in the wrong section. I'm working through Vellemans 'How to prove it' and he gives a proof that if 2|n and 3|n then 6|n (note that a|n means a divides n, just in case this is not standard notation). I think I proved it a different way, but as he did it differently, I'm half assuming my proof is incorrect. His proof is as follows:

"Suppose 2 | n and 3 | n. Then we can choose integers j and k such that n=2j and n=3k.
Therefore 6(j−k)=6j−6k=3(2j)−2(3k)= 3n − 2n = n, so 6 | n."

My "proof" is as follows:

"Suppose 2 | n and 3 | n. Then there is an integer k such that (2)(3)k=n. Thus, (6)k=n and therefore 6 | n."

If my proof is wrong, then could you tell me why? I was wondering if it's because my proof has something to do with the fact that every number can be written as a product of prime numbers and maybe I need to state this or something. Thanks in advance.
 
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TalkOrigin said:
Suppose 2 | n and 3 | n. Then there is an integer k such that (2)(3)k=n.

The definition of "2 | n" implies there is an integer k_a so that 2 k_a = n. The definition of "3 | n" implies there is an integer k_b such that 3 k_b = n. The compound statement "2 | n and 3 | n", doesn't assert anything about an integer k such that (2)(3)k = n.
 
Hi, thanks for the reply. I'm not sure why "2 | n and 3 | n" does not assert there is an integer k such that (2)(3)k = n. I forgot to say at the beginning that n is an arbitrary integer. I would think that if 2 and 3 both divide n, then obviously n is not prime, but can be expressed as a product of primes (2)(3) and an integer k.
 
The fact that 2 and 3 divide n, and 2 and 3 are prime, that is a valid proof.
 
HallsofIvy said:
The fact that 2 and 3 divide n, and 2 and 3 are prime, that is a valid proof.

Ah ok, so I have to say ""Suppose 2 | n and 3 | n. As 2 and 3 are both prime, then there is an integer k such that (2)(3)k=n. Thus, (6)k=n and therefore 6 | n."

EDIT: Also, could this be generalised to "Suppose a | n and b | n. As a and b are both prime, then there is an integer k such that abk=n. Thus, (ab)k=n and therefore ab | n."?
 
Last edited:
Stephen Tashi said:
The definition of "2 | n" implies there is an integer k_a so that 2 k_a = n. The definition of "3 | n" implies there is an integer k_b such that 3 k_b = n. The compound statement "2 | n and 3 | n", doesn't assert anything about an integer k such that (2)(3)k = n.
Actually, if 2 and 3 divide a number ##n##, then since ##gcd(2,3)=1##, ##n## also divides ##2\times 3=6##.
 
Last edited:
TalkOrigin said:
Ah ok, so I have to say ""Suppose 2 | n and 3 | n. As 2 and 3 are both prime, then there is an integer k such that (2)(3)k=n. Thus, (6)k=n and therefore 6 | n."

EDIT: Also, could this be generalised to "Suppose a | n and b | n. As a and b are both prime, then there is an integer k such that abk=n. Thus, (ab)k=n and therefore ab | n."?
Yes, this is correct. But ##a## and ##b## don't need to be prime. As long as, ##gcd(a,b)=1## and ##a|n## and ##b|n## then, ##ab|n##.
 
certainly said:
Actually it does. If a number ##n## divides 2 and also divides 3, then since ##gcd(2,3)=1##, ##n## also divides ##2\times 3=6##.
It's actually that 2 divides n, and 3 divides n, not that n divides 2 and n divides 3.
 
certainly said:
Yes, this is correct. But ##a## and ##b## don't need to be prime. As long as, ##gcd(a,b)=1## and ##a|n## and ##b|n## then, ##ab|n##.
whoops, sorry i replied with a brainfart
 
  • #10
Ah, yes! silly error on my part. Edited post accordingly.
 
  • #11
TalkOrigin said:
I would think that if 2 and 3 both divide n, then obviously n is not prime, but can be expressed as a product of primes (2)(3) and an integer k.

You can try an argument along those lines, but you have to state it! You can't just assert that there exists a k so that (2)(3)k = n without saying why.
 
  • #12
Stephen Tashi said:
You can try an argument along those lines, but you have to state it! You can't just assert that there exists a k so that (2)(3)k = n without saying why.
Ok thanks, this is my first dip into proof based mathematics, so I am still learning how to formulate proofs and everything. This book is great though! Thanks for all the help
 

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