Is this theorem valid for any base and function?

[Orion1]

Any Calculus researchers interested in disproving this theorem with a simple base and function?

Orion1 change of base theorem:
\frac{d}{dx} (\log_v u) = \frac{1}{u \ln(v)} \frac{du}{dx} - \frac{\ln(u)}{v \ln^2 (v)} \frac{dv}{dx}

Is this theorem correct?

Does this theorem accept functions in the base?

 

[lurflurf]

Any Calculus researchers interested in disproving this theorem with a simple base and function?

Orion1 change of base theorem:
\frac{d}{dx} (\log_v u) = \frac{1}{u \ln(v)} \frac{du}{dx} - \frac{\ln(u)}{v \ln^2 (v)} \frac{dv}{dx}

Is this theorem correct?

Does this theorem accept functions in the base?

It is true, and follows from
\log_v(u)=\frac{\log(u)}{\log(v)}

 

[Orion1]

Theorem Proof...


First derivative Change of Base (proof 1):
\frac{d}{dx} (\log_v u) = \frac{d}{dx} \left( \frac{\ln(u)}{\ln(v)} \right) = \frac{1}{u \ln(v)} \frac{du}{dx} - \frac{\ln(u)}{v \ln^2 (v)} \frac{dv}{dx}

First derivative Change of Base theorem:
\boxed{\frac{d}{dx} (\log_v u) = \frac{1}{u \ln(v)} \frac{du}{dx} - \frac{\ln(u)}{v \ln^2 (v)} \frac{dv}{dx}}