joeblow
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If F is a field of characteristic p, with prime subfield K = GF(p) and u in F is a root of f(x) (over K), then u^p is a root of f(x).
Now, I know that x^p \equiv x (\text{mod } p), so isn't it immediately true that f(x^p)=f(x) (over K)? So, 0=f(u)=f(u^p).
I only ask because this type of problem (as I understand it) is much more elementary than the material that the text is covering. In the section from which this problem comes, the main results are (1) that if F = GF(q), then the irreducible factors of x^{q^{m}}-x over F are precisely the irreducible polynomials over F of degree dividing m, (2) the Mobius inversion formula, and (3) a formula for finding the number of monic irreducible polynomials of degree m over GF(q).
Please tell me if there is some critical misunderstanding that I am having.
Now, I know that x^p \equiv x (\text{mod } p), so isn't it immediately true that f(x^p)=f(x) (over K)? So, 0=f(u)=f(u^p).
I only ask because this type of problem (as I understand it) is much more elementary than the material that the text is covering. In the section from which this problem comes, the main results are (1) that if F = GF(q), then the irreducible factors of x^{q^{m}}-x over F are precisely the irreducible polynomials over F of degree dividing m, (2) the Mobius inversion formula, and (3) a formula for finding the number of monic irreducible polynomials of degree m over GF(q).
Please tell me if there is some critical misunderstanding that I am having.