Ising Model for Spins: External Magnetic Field Effect

  • Thread starter Thread starter aaaa202
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Ising model Model
aaaa202
Messages
1,144
Reaction score
2
I think most of you are familiar with this model (sum runs over nearest neighbours):

H = -J ∑S_iz * S_jz

It demonstrates one of the succeses of meanfield theory as one can succesfully introduce:

S_iz = <S_iz> + S_iz - <S_iz> = <S_iz> + δS_iz

Such that:

S_iz*S_jz ≈ 2S_iz<S_jz> + const

Where I have neglected the second order term. Now my question:
In the presence of an external magnetic field the Hamiltonian gets introduced a second term which couples the spins to the external magnetic field:

H=H_ising + ∑ S_iz * B

In this case can I still use the mean-field approximation separately for the Ising term? My book certainly does it, but I am a bit confused because in my head the average <S_iz> is affected by the external magnetic field's effect on the spin, and in this case it is not for me obvious that just because the deviation from the average is small in the case of no external field, it should be too in the presence of one.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
The average \langle S_j^z \rangle is certainly changed by the external magnetic field - consider the extreme case with an antiferromagnetic J and a strong field along some axis. This will change the mean field from zero in the case of no field to its maximal value in the case of a strong field. There are different mean fields for different Hamiltonians, if you will.
 
From the BCS theory of superconductivity is well known that the superfluid density smoothly decreases with increasing temperature. Annihilated superfluid carriers become normal and lose their momenta on lattice atoms. So if we induce a persistent supercurrent in a ring below Tc and after that slowly increase the temperature, we must observe a decrease in the actual supercurrent, because the density of electron pairs and total supercurrent momentum decrease. However, this supercurrent...
Hi. I have got question as in title. How can idea of instantaneous dipole moment for atoms like, for example hydrogen be consistent with idea of orbitals? At my level of knowledge London dispersion forces are derived taking into account Bohr model of atom. But we know today that this model is not correct. If it would be correct I understand that at each time electron is at some point at radius at some angle and there is dipole moment at this time from nucleus to electron at orbit. But how...

Similar threads

Back
Top