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When I was studying Quantum mechanics, I realized that this equality should be true,

[tex] <{\psi}_{n} \mid {\psi}_{m}>=\int {\psi}_{m}^*{\psi}_{n}dx={\delta }_{mn}[/tex]

So [itex] {\psi}_{m}^*{\psi}_{n}[/itex] must be equal to dirac delta function so that we provide the kronecker delta as a solution of the integral.

Therefore, this equation must be true, mustn't it?

[tex]\int \delta (x-x')dx={\delta }_{mn}[/tex]

Or, if it is wrong, what is the expression [itex]{\psi}_{m}^*{\psi}_{n}[/itex] equal to?

Thanks for your opinions and helps.

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# Kronecker Delta and Dirac Delta

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