- #1
coki2000
- 91
- 0
Hello PF,
When I was studying Quantum mechanics, I realized that this equality should be true,
[tex] <{\psi}_{n} \mid {\psi}_{m}>=\int {\psi}_{m}^*{\psi}_{n}dx={\delta }_{mn}[/tex]
So [itex] {\psi}_{m}^*{\psi}_{n}[/itex] must be equal to dirac delta function so that we provide the kronecker delta as a solution of the integral.
Therefore, this equation must be true, mustn't it?
[tex]\int \delta (x-x')dx={\delta }_{mn}[/tex]
Or, if it is wrong, what is the expression [itex]{\psi}_{m}^*{\psi}_{n}[/itex] equal to?
Thanks for your opinions and helps.
When I was studying Quantum mechanics, I realized that this equality should be true,
[tex] <{\psi}_{n} \mid {\psi}_{m}>=\int {\psi}_{m}^*{\psi}_{n}dx={\delta }_{mn}[/tex]
So [itex] {\psi}_{m}^*{\psi}_{n}[/itex] must be equal to dirac delta function so that we provide the kronecker delta as a solution of the integral.
Therefore, this equation must be true, mustn't it?
[tex]\int \delta (x-x')dx={\delta }_{mn}[/tex]
Or, if it is wrong, what is the expression [itex]{\psi}_{m}^*{\psi}_{n}[/itex] equal to?
Thanks for your opinions and helps.
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