- #1
ghosts_cloak
- 16
- 0
Hello :-)
I am just finishing my QM homework and I have just showed that the wavefunction for a particle in an infinite 1D potential well form an orthonormal set of eigenfunctions. It asks me to express my results in terms of the Kronecker delta:
Delta[nm]={1 for n=m and 0 for n!=m}
Im a bit confused as to what this means... I have shown they are normalised and orthogonal, hence they are orthonormal? I don't see what the last part is asking me to do?
Any help is much appreciated!
~Gareth
I am just finishing my QM homework and I have just showed that the wavefunction for a particle in an infinite 1D potential well form an orthonormal set of eigenfunctions. It asks me to express my results in terms of the Kronecker delta:
Delta[nm]={1 for n=m and 0 for n!=m}
Im a bit confused as to what this means... I have shown they are normalised and orthogonal, hence they are orthonormal? I don't see what the last part is asking me to do?
Any help is much appreciated!
~Gareth