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Kronecker delta (Q.M)

  1. Feb 9, 2006 #1
    Hello :-)
    I am just finishing my QM homework and I have just showed that the wavefunction for a particle in an infinite 1D potential well form an orthonormal set of eigenfunctions. It asks me to express my results in terms of the Kronecker delta:

    Delta[nm]={1 for n=m and 0 for n!=m}

    Im a bit confused as to what this means.... I have shown they are normalised and orthogonal, hence they are orthonormal? I dont see what the last part is asking me to do?

    Any help is much appreciated!

  2. jcsd
  3. Feb 9, 2006 #2

    Meir Achuz

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    It's too trivial. Just write <n|m>= \delta_{nm} instead of saying it in words.
  4. Feb 9, 2006 #3
    Hi, lol!
    The question is sooo long I just lost sight of what I was doing. Yep it is trivial, I see now (actually, before I read your post, but thanks a lot anyway)

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