Hello :-)(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

I am just finishing my QM homework and I have just showed that the wavefunction for a particle in an infinite 1D potential well form an orthonormal set of eigenfunctions. It asks me to express my results in terms of the Kronecker delta:

Delta[nm]={1 for n=m and 0 for n!=m}

Im a bit confused as to what this means.... I have shown they are normalised and orthogonal, hence they are orthonormal? I dont see what the last part is asking me to do?

Any help is much appreciated!

~Gareth

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**

Join Physics Forums Today!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Kronecker delta (Q.M)

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**