# Kronecker delta (Q.M)

1. Feb 9, 2006

### ghosts_cloak

Hello :-)
I am just finishing my QM homework and I have just showed that the wavefunction for a particle in an infinite 1D potential well form an orthonormal set of eigenfunctions. It asks me to express my results in terms of the Kronecker delta:

Delta[nm]={1 for n=m and 0 for n!=m}

Im a bit confused as to what this means.... I have shown they are normalised and orthogonal, hence they are orthonormal? I dont see what the last part is asking me to do?

Any help is much appreciated!

~Gareth

2. Feb 9, 2006

### Meir Achuz

It's too trivial. Just write <n|m>= \delta_{nm} instead of saying it in words.

3. Feb 9, 2006

### ghosts_cloak

Hi, lol!
The question is sooo long I just lost sight of what I was doing. Yep it is trivial, I see now (actually, before I read your post, but thanks a lot anyway)

Cheers,
Gareth