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I am just finishing my QM homework and I have just showed that the wavefunction for a particle in an infinite 1D potential well form an orthonormal set of eigenfunctions. It asks me to express my results in terms of the Kronecker delta:

Delta[nm]={1 for n=m and 0 for n!=m}

Im a bit confused as to what this means.... I have shown they are normalised and orthogonal, hence they are orthonormal? I dont see what the last part is asking me to do?

Any help is much appreciated!

~Gareth

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# Homework Help: Kronecker delta (Q.M)

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